UGC NET December 2010 Notification National Eligibility Test December-2010 Online

National Eligibility Test December-2010 for Junior Research Fellowship and Eligibility for Lectureship.

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Here is latest information about UGC NET December 2010 Notification. UGC NET December 2010 Notification published on today. Student's can easily be downloaded UGC NET December 2010 Notification. You can check your UGC NET December 2010 Notification here.

The National Educational Testing Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC) conducts UGC-NET to be held on 26th December 2010. for December-2010 for Junior Research Fellowship and Eligibility for Lectureship.ugc net result.com,ugc net result 2006,ugc net result june, ugc results,net result,ugc net,ugc

UGC NET December 2010 Notification can easily be downloaded from here.

You have to enter your roll Number here and get your UGC NET December 2010 Notification.

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For Further Details of UGC NET Visit here http://www.ugcnetonline.in/ official website of University of Grants Commission National Educational Testing Bureau.

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3i Infotech Placement Paper Aptitude Section Sample Questions Test Papers

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1. In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y) B.x/xy C.x/(x + y) D.y/xy (Ans.C)
2. What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16 B.24 C.30 D.64 (Ans.D)
3. If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
A.0 B.1 C.-1 D.4 (Ans.B)
4. A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90 B.Rs.1.00 C.Rs.3.00 D.Rs.8.00 (Ans.C)
5. There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36 B.72 C.60 D.100 (Ans.B)
6. In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5 (Ans.B)
7. If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4 B.1/2 C.1 D.2 (Ans.C)
8. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b < a (B) b . a (C) b = a (D) b .= a (Ans. A)
9. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
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A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
10. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) (Ans. D)
11. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 (Ans.C)
12. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60 (Ans. B)
13. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 (Ans. D)
14. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe (Ans 5c1/ 9c1)
15.What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned (Ans: Rs 66/-)
16. 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.
17. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100% (Ans: 42.857%)
18. There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square. (Ans. 11/14 )
19. There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .
Ans: 3 hours.
20. f M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?
21. If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?
22. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST . (Ans: 1:2 )CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
23. The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ?
(Ans: Rs 13.86/- )
24. There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes (Ans: 6c2/10c2)
25. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol. (Ans : 15% )
26. A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ? (Ans : 57.50 )
27. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x b) x2 (c) –x (d) 1/x (Ans : (d) )
28. If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey? Ans: 48kmph
29. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay? (Ans: 6%)
30. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it? (Ans: 9)
31. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ? (Ans : 9B)
32. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase? (Ans : 300%)

33. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? Ans : 315 feet
34. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take? Ans: 360 times
35. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution
(Ans: 36%)
36.City A’s population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population? (Ans: 130 years)
37.Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet? (Ans: 3/2 hours)
38. A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won’t able to buy 3 paise stamps. Ans: 9
39.There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.
40. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 (Ans: (b))
41. There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle? Ans: 1 : 2
42. Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quantities of band c are equal
a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30 (Ans. (b))
43. In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. (Ans. (d))
44. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?
(a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these (Ans. A)
45. Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 – 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 – 0.075 + 0.01)
(a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 (Ans. A)
46. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?
(a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can’t say (Ans. B)
47. A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs. What is the distance traveled
(a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these (Ans. B)
48. Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ?
49. Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient (Ans. C)
50. A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid. What is the % of water in the new mixture?
51. If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain?
52. Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ?
53. If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage.
(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% (Ans. D)
54. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these (Ans. A)
55. In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans. C)
56. If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will it become 9 times itself.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (Ans A)
57. Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him. What is the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m (Ans B)
58. How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh
is 8mm long and 5mm wide ?
(a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 (Ans B)
x% of y is y% of ?
(a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can’t be determined Ans. C
59. The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?
(a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% (Ans B)
60. A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ?
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans C)
61. The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?
62. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?
63. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 (Ans. A)
64. A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?
(a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms (Ans C)
65. A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below. (Figure is not available) What is the area of the plank? ( Ans :7*(2)1/2 )
66. What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a perfect square ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (Ans. C)
67. A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years what is father’s present age ?
(a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these (Ans. A)

68. An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?
69. If an item costs Rs.3 in ’99 and Rs.203 in ’00.What is the % increase in price?
(a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these (Ans. A)
70. 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days.
a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 (Ans 7)
71. A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest?
a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% (Ans 8%)
72. In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are —. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?
a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 (Ans130)
73. An article sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the article?
a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 (Ans 500)
74. A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home. One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach home usually?? (Ans. 1hr 20min)
75. A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
Ans. 22½days
76. How many 1′s are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3 Ans. 4
77. In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ?

78. A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1.He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.Find the number of ways in which this is possible? (Ans. 16)
79. If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors. Find the memory required for this? (Ans. 4MB)
80. On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says “A says that he is a liar” What is B speaking ?(a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A lies (d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
81. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30
Ans. 75(approx)
82. A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there in totality ?
83. A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to his right.In which direction did he go (Ans. North west)
84. A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much should get in third subject.
85. A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my grandmother’s only son.What is the relation between the two
Ans. Daughter
86. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266
87. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b)
88. 2598Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b)
89. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?

(a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g (Ans. (c))
90. If x/y=4 and y is not ’0′ what % of x is 2x-y
(a)150% (b)175% (c)200% (d)250% (Ans. (b))
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Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Papers OBC Probationary Officers Papers

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Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) PO Exam Model Paper 1
Section : Reasoning Ability – Aptitude
1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to
(1) Supervisor (2) Employee (3) Organisation (4) Union (5) Customer
2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt (2) Child (3) Father (4) Niece (5) Relation
3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband
of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law (3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these
4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called
‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon (2) jug (3) glass (4) saucer (5) none of these
5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?
(1) 33 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 73 (5) None of these
w
6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD (3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD (5) None of these
7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is
elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seeta (2) Geeta (3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these
8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is
sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the
immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal (3) Raman (4) Harry (5) Cannot be determined
9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J
11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five (5) None of these
12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these
13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these
14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) # (2) 7 (3) U (4) 9 (5) None of these
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Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) PO Exam Model Paper 1 – Question No. 15 to 25
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) G$M (2) K9Q (3) ?D7 (4) 2MU (5) PCI
16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,’le ki ba’ means ‘she has
lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?
(1) in (2) pe (3) se (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these
17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO (3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO (5) None of
these
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19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and
4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # « (3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ? (5) None of these
20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN (3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER:
RLEWO (5) None of these
Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice
21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa (2) Kamal (3) Aman (4) Priyanka (5) None of these
22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer (3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap (5) Come-watch
23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go (2) Fun (3) Come (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches (3) Kamal advertises computers
(4) Kamal works for Fun (5) None of these
25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates (2) Watches (3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) PO Exam Model Paper 1 – Answers from 1 to 25 are as follows,
1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)
Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) PO Exam Model Paper 2
Section : Reasoning – Mental Ability – Aptitude
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend theseminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours (3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these
28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) 9
29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT
(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these
30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi newspaper subscribers.
(1) 9 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letters M Q I N E Y U G R
Numeric
Codes
2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?
31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28 (2) ?732? (3) 17328 (4) ?7328 (5) None of these
32. GENIR
(1) ?173? (2) 6%39 (3) 6%79 (4) 61739 (5) None of these
33. QUERI
(1) 5%93 (2) ?413? (3) ?4139 (4) ?419? (5) None of these
34. EINUM
(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42 (3) 1374? (4) 1%43 (5) None of these
35. UNGRE
(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś (3) 47691 (4) Ś7691 (5) None of these
Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) PO Exam Model Paper 2
Question No. 36 to 50 Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and: Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.
II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.
42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
43. When is Rahul’s birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house. Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972 (3) 526 (4) 487 (5) 251
47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these
48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five
49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359 (3) 487 (4) 526 (5) 972
50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526 (3) 487 (4) 251 (5) 359
Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) PO Exam Model Paper 2 – Answers from 26 to 50 are as follows,CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)
41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)
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Accenture Placement Paper Held on 17th September 2010 at SJBIT Bangalore

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Accenture Placement Paper Pattern Held on 17th September 2010 at SJBIT Bangalore
Hai Frnds I recently attended ACCENTURE interview n wud lik to share my experience
There were 4 rounds:
1.Aptitude:English grammar,quantitative, subtitution of symbols,essay
2.GD
3.Technical
4.HR
1.Aptitude: There were some 4 fill in the blanks(very easy),2-3 synonyms,then 2 reading the passage.
1 long(topic:hologram), 1 short( topic was pattern recognition)..then there were some 4 more grammatical questions. Im not an expert in english but still believe me this will be very easy only thing is u shd revise parts of speech.. i used school std grammer buk..then comes aptitude(i seriously hate it) but still it was easy.. use r.s Agarwal its gud.. q’s were from ages, alligation n mixtures,probability,venn diagrams, family relations(2-3 q’s were ther),calender,clocks n some more topics. Then comes the most easiest part odd man out…ex: question wud be….
a) 1284566678
b)1234566678
c)1284566878
d)1284566678
n ask u whtr they r similar or not or if 2 r similar.. something like dis…ul get 5 q’s of this type.
then a puzzle giving many relationship then ask u 2 do some calculation(time consuming) then symbol subtitution in wch u wud get smethin like…if + is %,- is # then a#(b%d(f#g)) where a,b,d,f,g are so n so…CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
NOTE : PLS DON’T TAKE IT LIGHTLY…IT VL BE DEFINITLY EASY IF U DO SOME PRACTICE…CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
Finally an essay to be written in 5 min.. my topic was Indian politics. Try to put some saying here and ther, n write some gud points i.e u need not write unnecessarily 1 full page..evn if u write half a page tat shd b effective..…then u can easily clear …n eassy topic vl b tld at d end..
Our test began at 9.25 it was for 1 hr..at d end thy gav essay topic wch was for 5 min.Later v were askd to wait 4 some time.. thy announced the result around 12:30. Appx 90 cleared out of 300 in my test room.
I was one among thm… I was happy bt tensed abt GD.
Nxt thy divided us in group of 12-15.
Group discussion:
Initially I was bit nervous but later gained confidence…
Topic was “STUDYIN IN INDIA VS ABROAD” . Dam good topic..since I had gathered a lot of info abt dis.. dis became my favorite discussion. One thing I must say tat accenture HR was vry vry gud..i really felt comfortable in tat gup.. one imp thing u shd nt interrupt othr wen dey r telling something..and every 1 will get a fare chance to say.. bt don’t wait for d chance try to get tat chance…DON’T PANIC IT VL B EASY IF UR CONFIDENT….discussion was for 15 min..
Later results were announced… I was one among thm…I was vry happy as I tot gd vl b d mst difficult part… thn I became bit more confident….was vry happy…it was around 1:30.
Nxt 2 round were thr nxt day………
* Document verification….
* All semester marks card, id , resume…
I was waiting 4 dis 4m 8am to 11am……long wait.. thn technical…
Technical: I was ready to face any thing as I had tough time in earlier interviews… so I prepared really hard bt still I didn’t have any expectation … so I was cool …. I was called inside at 12.45pm I guess..
ME: Excuse Me Sir..
HE: ya come in..,latr he askd me to sit..
ME: thank u..
HE: Tell me abt urslf..
ME:tld…
HE:saw my resume n askd abt operating sys…diff b/w DOS,LINUX,WINDOWS…
ME:tld..
HE:abt project..
ME: tld.. bt I felt he didn’t understand it clearly coz my project was bit complicated..thn I tried my bst to convince him. Finally he was convinced… don’t get scared vth thr reactns.. thy vl chk ur confidence…so its vry imp to b confident…
HE: few q’s on my favorite sub..
ME:tld..
HE: askd abt few doc tat was missin..
ME: Tld d reason 4 missin doc..
HE:ok thank u..
ME:thank u sir.. n left…
For few of my frnd thy askd 4m c++,java…. Basics r vry imp…
Later i was waiting out 4 long time… I was feelin hungry bt thy didn’t allow us any whr..it was around 4pm thy calld me 4 HR round..till tat I didn’t no tat I was in… I MUST SAY.. PPL AT ACCENTURE ARE REALLY COOL ….MY TECHNICAL INTERVIEWER WAS REALLY GUD…
HR:
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IGAU B.Sc B.Tech Exam Time Table 2010 www.igau.edu.in Indira Gandhi Agricultural University B.Sc B.Tech Exam Time Table 2010

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Indira Gandhi Agricultural University Published The Following Examination Time Table 2010
Time Table: B.Tech. (DT) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination
Time Table: B.F.Sc. (Fishery Science) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination
Time Table: B.Sc. (Hort.) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination
Time Table: B.Sc. (Hort.) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination 1st year
Time Table: B.Sc. (Ag.) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination 1st year
Time Table: B.Sc. (Ag.) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination 1st year
Time Table: B.Tech. (Ag.Engg.) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination 1st year
Time Table: B.Tech. (Ag.Engg.) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination 1st year
Time Table: B.Tech. (DT) 1st Smester Final Theory Examination 1st year
Click Here To Download Exam Time Table 

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Kurukshetra University Result 2010 www.kuk.ac.in KUK Result 2010

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 Kurukshetra University Result 2010 www.kuk.ac.in KUK Result 2010
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Kurukshetra University Published the Examination Result 2010
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The Kurukshetra University was established in 1956 as a unitary residential University and its foundation stone was laid by late Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India. Located in the holy city of Kurukshetra, land of the historical battle of ‘Mahabharata’ and the great message of Bhagwad Gita, its campus is situated on the western bank of Brahm Sarover (the holy tank) and extends over an area of over 400 acres. Starting with only the Department of Sanskrit, it has grown into a multi-faculty University as one of the premier centres for advanced study and research in the region.
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Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati University B.A Supple Exam Result 2010 www.mdsuajmer.com MDSU B.A Part III Supplementary Exam Result 2010

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 Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati University B.A Supple Exam Result 2010 www.mdsuajmer.com MDSU B.A Part III Supplementary Exam Result 2010
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Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati University, Ajmer Published The B.A Part III (Honours) Supplementary Examination Result 2010
The University of Ajmer was established on 1 August 1987. It’s name was changed from University of Ajmer to Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati University, Ajmer vide Rajasthan State Gazette dated 5 May, 1992. The University was registered in the year 1993 under section 12(B) of U.G.C.Act,1956.
Since the day of its inception the University was entrusted with a major responsibility of conducting the examination of nearly 1.5 lakh students of colleges spread over the six divisions of the state. In 1990 teaching began in History, Political science , zoology, botany and mathematics departments. In 1991, M. Phil, teaching programmes were initiated by History, Political Science, Botany departments and later promising job oriented courses such as PG diplomas in Environmental Technology, Microbiology and lab. technology and instrumentation were started. In 1993, after shifting to new campus, departments of microbiology, foods and nutrition, applied chemistry, management studies and computer applications were created offering M. Sc., MBA, PG Diploma and Ph. D. programmes.
Click Here To MDSU BA Part III (Honours) Supp. Exam Result 2010
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APPSC Assistant Training Officer Recruitment Notification Oct 2010 www.apspsc.gov.in APPSC Assistant Training Officer Recruitment Application Forms

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ANDHRA PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION: HYDERABAD
NOTIFICATION NO. 07 / 2010
ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICERS IN A.P. CRAFTSMEN TRAINING SUB – SERVICE
HOW TO APPLY:
A) HOW TO UPLOAD THE APPLICATION FORM:
i) The Applicants have to read the User Guide for Online Submission of Applications and then proceed further.
I Step: The Candidate has to logon to the WEBSITE (www.apspsc.gov.in) and enter his/her Basic Personal Details like Name, Father’s Name, Date of Birth, and Community.
II Step: Immediately on entering the above details the Applicant will get (downloadable)- Challan Form to pay the Fee at AP Online centers /State Bank of India.
III Step: The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee in any one of the A.P. Online centers / State
Bank of India and obtain Fee paid challan with Journal Number in the first instance.
IV Step: On the next working day after payment of Fee the Applicant should again visit
WEBSITE and enter the Journal Number to get and fill the format of Application and should submit ON-LINE.
V Step: Affix your recent Colour Passport Size Photograph on a White Paper and then sign below the photograph with Black Pen. Scan the above Photo and Signature and Upload in the appropriate space provided (JPG Format) inApplication Form.
VI Step: The applicants have to invariably fill all the relevant columns in the Application and should submit ON-LINE .
ii) Hand written/ Typed/ Photostat copies/ outside printed Application Form will not be accepted and liable for rejection.
iii) Only applicants willing to serve anywhere in the Andhra Pradesh should apply. iv) For any problems related to Online submission and downloading of Hall-Tickets please contact 040-23557455 ((Call Time: 9.30 A.M to 1.00 P.M & 1.30 P.M to 5.30 P.M) or mail to appschelpdesk@gmail.com.
NOTE:
1. The Commission is not responsible, for any discrepancy in submitting through Online. The applicants are therefore, advised to strictly follow the instructions andUser guide in their own interest. 2. The particulars furnished by the applicant in the Application Form will be taken as final, and data entry processed, based on these particulars only by Computer. Candidates should, therefore, be very careful in Uploading / Submitting the Application Form Online.
3. INCOMPLETE/INCORRECT APPLICATION FORM WILL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED. THE INFORMATION IF ANY FURNISHED BY THE CANDIDATE SUBSEQUENTLY WILL NOT BE ENTERTAINED BY THE COMMISSION UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES. APPLICANTS SHOULD BE CAREFUL IN FILLING-UP THEAPPLICATION FORM AND SUBMISSION. IF ANY LAPSE IS DETECTED DURING THE SCRUTINY, THE CANDIDATURE WILL BE REJECTED EVEN THOUGH HE/SHE COMES THROUGH THE FINAL STAGE OF RECRUITMENT PROCESS OR EVEN AT A LATER STAGE.
4. Before Uploading/Submission Application Form, the Candidates should carefully ensure
his/her eligibility for this examination.
NO RELEVANT COLUMN OF THE APPLICATION FORM SHOULD BE LEFT BLANK, OTHERWISE APPLICATION FORM WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED.
5. The candidates should carefully decide about the choice for CENTRE for the examination, which is taken as final. If any candidate appears at a centre/ Examination venue other than one allotted by the Commission, the answer sheets of such candidates shall not be valued and liable for invalidation. 6. The Commission reserves the right to create centre(s) forexamination and also to call the Candidates for the test at any other centre.
PARA-9: CENTRES FOR THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION:
1. The Written Examination will be held at the following Five Centres:
1- HYDERABAD 2- VISAKHAPATNAM 3- VIJAYAWADA
4- TIRUPATI 5- WARANGAL.
2. DATES FOR WRITTEN EXAMINATION WILL BE ANNOUNCED LATER THROUGH NEWS PAPERS AND CANDIDATES ARE REQUESTED TO REMAIN ALERT IN THIS REGARD.CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
3. Applicants should choose only one of the above centres. Centre once chosen shall be final. The Commission however reserves the right to allot candidates to any centre other than centre chosen by the applicant or abolish a centre and/or to create a new centre for administrative reasons.
PARA-10: INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) The candidates must note that his/her admission to the examination is strictly provisional. The mere fact that an Admission has been issued to him/her does not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission or that the entries made by the candidate in his/her application have been accepted by the Commission as true and correct. Candidates are required to upload his / her photo with signature in the prescribed format ofApplication form . Failure to produce the same photograph, if required, at the time of interview/ verification, may lead to disqualification. Hence the candidates are advised not to change their appearance till therecruitment process is complete.
2) The candidates should go through the instructions given on the cover page of test booklet and carefully write his/her Register Number, Centre etc., in the Answer Sheet, which will be provided to him/her in theexamination hall.
3) Since the answer sheets are to be scanned (valued) with Optical Mark Scanner system, the candidates have to USE H.B. PENCIL ONLY FOR MARKING THE ANSWERS. The candidates should bring H.B. pencil, Eraser, Ball pen, and smooth writing pad to fill up relevant columns on the Answer Sheet. The candidate must ensure encoding the Subject, Register No., etc., on the O.M.R. Answer sheet correctly, failing which the Answer sheet will be rejected and will not be valued.
4) The candidates should satisfy the Invigilator of his identity with reference to the signature and photographs.CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
5) The candidates should take their seats 20 minutes before the commencement of the examination and are not to be allowed after 10 minutes of the scheduled time. They should not leave the examination hall till expiry of fulltime. The candidates are allowed to use the calculators in the examination hall (not programmable calculators). Loaning and interchanging of articles among the candidates is not permitted in the examination hall. Cell phones and Pagers are not allowed in the examination hall.
6) The candidates are expected to behave in orderly and disciplined manner while writing the examination. If any candidate takes away Answer Sheet, the candidature will be rejected and in case of impersonation/ disorder/ rowdy behavior during WrittenExamination , necessary F.I.R. for this incident will be lodged with concerned Police Station, apart from disqualifying appointment in future.
Merit is the only criteria that decides the selections. Candidates trying to use unfair means shall be disqualified from the selection. No correspondence whatsoever will be entertained from the candidates. The candidature and conditions specified here are subject to latest rules / orders come into force during the process ofrecruitment.
7) The Commission would be analyzing the responses of a candidate with other appeared candidates to detect patterns of similarity. If it is suspected that the responses have been shared and the scores obtained are not genuine/ valid, the Commission reserves the right to cancel his/ her candidature and to invalidate the Answer Sheet. 8) If the candidate noticed any discrepancy printed on Hall ticket as to community, date of birth etc., they may immediately bring to the notice of Commission’s officials/Chief Superintendent
in the exam centre and necessary corrections be made in the Nominal Roll for being verified by the Commission’s Office.
PARA-11:DEBARMENT:
a) Candidates should make sure of their eligibility to the post applied for and that the declaration made by them in the format of application regarding their eligibility is correct in all respects. Any candidate furnishing in-correct information or making false declaration regarding his/her eligibility at any stage or suppressing any information is liable TO BE DEBARRED FROM APPEARING FOR ANY OF THE EXAMINATIONS CONDUCTED BY THE COMMISSION, and summarily rejection of their candidature for thisrecruitment.
b) The Penal Provisions of Act 25/97 published in the A.P. Gazette No. 35, Part-IV.B Extraordinary dated: 21/08/1997 shall be invoked if malpractice and unfair means are noticed at any stage of theRecruitment.
c) The Commission is vested with the constitutional duty of conducting recruitment and selection as per rules duly maintaining utmost secrecy and confidentiality in this process and any attempt by anyone causing or likely to cause breach of this constitutional duty in such manner or by such action as to violate or likely to violate the fair practices followed and ensured by the Commission will be sufficient cause for rendering such questionable means as ground for debarment and penal consequences as per law and rules as per decision of the Commission. d) Any candidate is or has been found impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person or resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his / her candidature for selection or obtaining support of candidature by any means, such a candidate may in addition to rendering himself/ herself liable to criminal prosecution, will be liable to be debarred permanently from any exam or selection held by the Service Commission’s in the country.
e) MEMORANDUM OF MARKS: Memorandum of Marks is issued on payment of Rs.25/- (Rupees twenty five only) through crossed Indian Postal Order only drawn in favour of the Secretary, A.P. Public Service Commission, Hyderabad. Request for Memorandum of Marks from candidates, will be entertained within two months from the date of publication of the selections. Such a request must necessarily be accompanied by a Xerox copy of the Hallticket. Request for revaluation or recounting will not be under taken under any circumstances. Invalid, disqualified, ineligible candidates will not be issued any Memorandum of Marks and fees paid by such candidates, if any, will be forfeited to Government account, without any correspondence in this regard.
If any candidate fails to mark the Booklet Series, Roll Number etc., in the OMR Answer Sheet, the Commission reserves the right to invalidate such Answer Sheets as Answer Sheets are valued by Optical Mark Scanner. In case of rejection/ invalidation due to omission on the part of the candidate, the decision of the Commission is final and such request for Memorandum of Marks in such cases will be intimated accordingly. No request for reconsideration of such rejected/invalidated cases will be entertained under any circumstances whatsoever.
PARA-12: COMMISSION’S DECISION TO BE FINAL:
The decision of the Commission in all aspects and all respects pertaining to the application and its acceptance or rejection as the case may be, conduct of examination and at all consequent stages culminating in the selection or otherwise of any candidate shall be final in all respects and binding on all concerned, under the powers vested with it under Article 315 and 320 of the Constitution of India. Commission also reserves its right to alter and modify regarding time and conditions laid down in the notification for conducting the various stages up to selection, duly intimating details thereof to all concerned, as warranted by any unforeseen circumstances arising during the course of this process, or as deemed necessary by the Commission at any stage. Note: On 16/11/2010 on-line submission closes by 5.00 P.M.CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 
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United Bank Of India has require following candidate under its latest recruitment notification

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United Bank Of India has require following candidate under its latest recruitment notification. Candidates who are eligible and interested are advised to paid fee  through Demand Draft favoring “United Bank of India, Recruitment Project” , payable at Kolkata.

 More details about United Bank of India Recruitment are as follows

1. Deputy General Manager, Risk Management – 1
2. Deputy General Manager, Marketing & New Initiative - 1
3. Deputy General Manager, Forex - 1
4. Deputy General Manager, Treasury – 1
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Salary Pay Scale: TEG Scale –VI Rs.42000 – 1200(4) – Rs.46800/-
DA, HRA, CCA etc. will be paid as per Bank’s rules in force from time to time depending upon the place of posting. Medical, LTC, Pension, P.F., Gratuity etc. will be admissible as per Bank’s rules.

Age as on 01.07.2010 – 47-55
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Fee:Rs. 400 for General and OBC category candidates and Rs. 50 for  SC/ST/PWD category candidates
Requisite Application Fee is to be paid through Demand Draft favoring “United Bank of India, Recruitment Project” , payable at Kolkata.

Submission of application form: Last date for receipt of application form: 31/10/2010.

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Visva Bharati Santiniketan Recruitment 2010 www.visva-bharati.ac.in published Special Drive for SC ST OBC candidates

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Visva Bharati Santiniketan Recruitment 2010 - Visva Bharati Santiniketan has published Special Drive for SC/ST/OBC candidates. Persons who are eligible and desirous for these jobs are requested to submit application for following posts in prescribed application format, before the last date.

1. Assistant Registrar & Equivalent, Visva-Bharati (OBC)
2. Assistant Registrar & Equivalent, Visva-Bharati (SC)
3. Assistant Registrar & Equivalent, Visva-Bharati (ST)
4. Audio Visual Assistant, Kala Bhavana (OBC)
5. Deputy Registrar & Equivalent, Visva-Bharati(OBC)
6. Jr. Compositor, Press (SC)
7. Jr. Engineer, Electrical(ST)
8. Jr. Engineer, Estimator, Civil(ST)
9. Jr. Office Assistant cum Typist, Visva-Bharati (OBC)
10. Jr. Technical Assistant, REC (OBC)
11. Jr. Technical Assistant, REC(OBC)
12. Lecturer in Rural Development, PCK (OBC)(PH)
13. Lecturer, Chemistry(Lien Vacancy, likely to be permanent)(OBC)
14. Lecturer, Computer & System Sciences(SC)
15. Lecturer, Drama & Theatre Art(SC)
16. Lecturer, Drama(OBC)
17. Lecturer, Graphic Art(SC)
18. Lecturer, History of Art(ST)
19. Lecturer, Indo Tibetan Studies (ST)
20. Lecturer, Manipuri Dance, RMDD(ST)
21. Lecturer, Physics(PH)
22. Lecturer, Rabindra Sangit, RMDD(OBC)
23. Lecturer, Rabindra Sangit, RMDD(SC)
24. Lecturer, Rabindra Sangit, RMDD(ST)
25. Lecturer, Sculpture(OBC)
26. Lecturer, Tamil(OBC)
27. Professor, Geography(Integrated Science Course)(ST)
28. Professor, IGCNI (SC)
29. Professor, Physical Education(SC)
30. Professor, Physics(SC)
31. Reader, Crop Improvement, Horticulture & Agricultural Botany(Lien Vacancy, likely to be permanent)(SC)
32. Reader, English(SC)
33. Reader, Hindi(ST)
34. Reader, Sculpture(ST)
35. Reference Assistant, PCK (OBC)(PH)
36. Jr. Office Assistant cum Typist, Visva-Bharati(OBC)(PH)

AGE DETAILS (Relaxable on the recommendation of the Selection Committee) :
Ordinarily below For Sl. No. 1 to 4 & 9 : 45 Yrs
Ordinarily below For Sl. No. 5 to 8 : 40 Yrs
Ordinarily below For Sl. No. 10 to 36 : 35 Yrs

Application on prescribed form along with 9(nine) photo copies of properly filled in application form and one set of true copies of testimonials, Certificates and two recent passport size Photographs (non-returnable) duly attested by a Gazetted Officer/ Principal, Govt. College/ Head Master, Govt. School/ M.P./ M.L.A. should reach the Registrar, Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan, Dist-Birbhum, Pin- 731235.
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The candidates must fulfill the essential qualifications on the date of application.

The last date for submission of application form for Corrigendum No. 2 in respect of Advt. No. 1/2010 and for Advt. No. 2/2010 is 19.11.2010 and the application to be reached at the office of the Registrar within 5 P.M. of this date.

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CEMENT CORPORATION OF INDIA LIMITED www.cementcorporation.co.in Application for the 21 post various vacancy

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CEMENT CORPORATION OF INDIA LIMITED (CCI)
(A Govt. of India Enterprise)
Regd. & Head Office: Core-V, Scope Complex 7, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003

Cement Corporation of India Ltd. (CCI)  is on look out for dynamic and result oriented professionals, for the following positions :

   1. Executive Director (Projects) : 01 post
   2. Executive Director (Mktg.) :  01 post
   3. General Manager (Tech.) : 02 posts
   4. General Manager (Fin.) : 01 post
   5. General Manager (HR) : 01 post
   6. Addl. Gen. Mgr.(Maint. & Services) / Dy. Gen. Mgr.(Maint. & Services) : 01 post
   7. Dy. Gen. Mgr. (Projects) : 02 posts
   8. Senior Manager (Fin.) : 01 post
   9. Senior Manager( MM) : 01 post
  10. Senior Manager (HR) : 01 post
  11. Manager (MM) : 01 post
  12. Manager (Mech.) : 02 posts
  13. Manager (Civil) : 02 posts
  14. Manager (Elect. & Inst.) : 02 posts
  15. Dy. Manager/ P&AO : 01 post
  16. Dy. Manager/ Security Officer : 01 post
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How to Apply :  Interested candidates may send their applications duly completed in all respects as08/11/2010 in the cover superscribed “Application for the post of _________” and send the same at the following address:CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY
Senior Manager (Personnel), Cement Corporation of India Ltd, Core-V, Scope Complex, 7- Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003

Complete advertisement and application format is available at http://www.cementcorporation.co.in/uploads/prof.pdf
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www.iip-in.com India Institute of Packaging Recruitment for various backlog 08 posts

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India Institute of Packaging (IIP)
E-2, MIDC, Andheri East, Mumbai-400093

Recruitment for various backlog postsCLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY
Applications are invited forthe following posts :CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY
   1. Professor : 02 posts (OBC-1, SC-1), Pay Scale : Rs.37400-67000 AGP Rs.8900
   2. Joint Director/ Associate Professor : 02 posts (OBC-1, SC-1), Pay Scale : Rs.37400-67000 AGP Rs.8700
   3. Assistant Director/ Lecturer : 02 posts (ST-1, SC-1), Pay Scale : Rs. 15600-39100 Grade Pay Rs. 5400
   4. Hindi Officer : 01 post (PH-1), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4600
   5. Jr. Stenographer : 01 post (PH-1), Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs.2400
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How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 15/11/2010.

Please view http://www.iip-in.com/JobRecruitments.pdf for details and application format.
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www.igntu.nic.in Indira Gandhi National Tribal University Amarkantak applications for the following Teaching 58 posts Professor,Associate Professor,Assistant Professor

CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY Indira Gandhi National Tribal University (IGNTU), Amarkantak
(A Central University established by an Act of Parliament)
Mekal Sadan, Kapiladhara Road, Amarkantak (M.P.) – 484886

Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak invites applications for the following Teaching posts :

   1. Professor : 10 posts in various subjects
   2. Associate Professor : 18 posts in various subjects
   3. Assistant Professor : 30 posts in various subjects

Application Fee :  A Demand Draft of Rs.200/- for General/OBC Candidates & Rs.100/- foris to be submitted along with application form, drawn in favour of Indira Gandhi National Tribal Universiy, Payable at State Bank of India, Amarkantak (IFS Code No.-SBIN 0004674 ).
SC/ST Candidates
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How to Apply :  The completed application forms should reach to the Registrar, IGNTU, Amarkantak on or before 22/11/2010.
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Please visit  http://igntu.nic.in/recruitment.htm for details and application form.
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Government of India Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion Recruitment in Examiner of Patents and Designs Online Applications are invited for selection of 257 posts DIPP online apply application 2010

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Government of India
Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) (Mumbai)
Office of The Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks
Boudhik Sampada Bhavan, S.M.Road, Antop Hill, Mumbai- 400037

Recruitment in Examiner of Patents and Designs

Online Applications are invited for selection of 257 posts (UR-120, SC-39, ST-19, OBC-79) of Examiner of Patents and Designs in various disciplines in the Pay Scale of Rs. 15600-39100 grade pay Rs.5400/- (Group "A" Gazetted). CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY
Qualification :  Masters Degree in Physics/ Chemistry/ Bio-Chemistry/ Microbiology/ Molecular Biology/ Bio-Technology/ Bio-Physics, OR Bachelor Degree in Engineering/ Technology of a recognised University or equivalent
Age : 35 years as on closing date.CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY
Selection by an examination on 02/01/2011 at 17 centre all over India.

How to Apply : Apply online at DIPP Website only upto 19/10/2010 Now extended upto 29/10/2010. Take a printout of the submitted application and the application form, duly completed with requisite enclosures & fixing requisite postage stamp on the mailing envelop should be sent to the Sr. Controller of Examinations, Examination Unit, Human Resource Development Group, CSIR Complex, (Opposite Institute of Hotel Management), Library Avenue, Pusa, New Delhi 110012 only by registered post/speed post so as to reach this Unit on or before 5 p.m. on 25/10/2010 now exended upto 08/11/2010.

Further details and online submission of application is available at  http://203.199.141.242/dipp/online/index.jsp CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY 

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www.nausena-bharti.nic.in THE INDIAN NAVY Short Service Commissioned (SSC) Officer in Technical Branch Applications are invited from unmarried Indian Citizens pdf online download

CLICK HERE FOR MORE VACANCY THE INDIAN NAVY
 
Become a Short Service Commissioned (SSC) Officer in Technical Branch (Engineering & Electrical branches)  - July 2011 Course

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Applications are invited from unmarried Indian Citizens for Short Service Commission (SSC) Officer in Technical Branches (Engineering and Electrical) of the Indian Navy for Course commencing July 2011 at NAVAC Ezhimala, Kerala.

Eligibility Conditions:
Age : Between 19 & 1/2 to 25 years (candidates to be born between 02 July 1986 to 01 January 1992; both dates inclusive) for Technical (GS) and Submarine Cadre (Engineering & Electrical),  and 21 to 25 years for Naval Architecture Cadre  i.e 02 July 1986 to 01 July 1990
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Educational Qualifications : B.E/ B.Tech. (or equivalent) in Mechanical/ Marine/ Automotive/ Mechtronics/ Industrial & Production/ Metallurgy/ Aeronautical/ Aerospace/ Conrol/ Electrical/ Elecronics/ tele-Communication/ Instrumentation/ Insrumentation and Control/ Electronics and Instrumentation/ Elecronics and Communication/ Power Engineering/ Control System Engineering/ Power Electronics/ Computer Science Engg.  from a institution recognised by AICTE with minimum 60% marks :
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Physical Standards : Hight and Wieght : Minimum height Male - 157 cms, 152 cms for Female with correlated weight. Eye Sight : The minimum acceptable vision standard for distant vision, 6/24, 6/24 correctable to 6/6, 6/6 with glasses. Should not be colour/night blind.

SSC : Short Service Commission is granted for a term of 10 years, extendable to 14 years, subject to service requirements and performance/willingness of the candidate.

How to Apply: Application Forms in accordance with the prescribed format and complete in all respects with superscription on the envelope “Application for 1st Choice .... 2nd .... 3rd ...." and :Aggregate Percentage (1 to 8 Semesters)” are to be sent to the address given below by 08/11/2010 :
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Post Bag No. 02, Sarojini Nagar, New Delhi - 110023

Details and application form format are available at the website at http://www.nausena-bharti.nic.in/DownLoads/officer/SSCTE.pdf and application for is also available at http://www.nausena-bharti.nic.in/DownLoads/officer/SSCTF.pdf
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AIPMT Application Form 2011,AIPMT Admit Card 2011

Notification regarding AIPMT 2011 Application forms, Admit Card, Results: In compliance with the directive of the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India,the Central Board Of Secondary Education,Delhi,would be conducting the All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Examination,2010. This entrance examination is being conducted exclusively for the 15% merit positions for the Medical/Dental Colleges of India as specified in the directive of the court and will be governed by the rules and regulations specified for the same by the Government of India,Ministry of Health and Family Welfare from time to time.

AIPMT Application form 2011 :-

Please read the instructions and proceed carefully before you start filling the Application Form. Application can be submitted Online during 20.10.2011 to 27.11.2011 (05:00 PM) . Payment of Fee could be made either by Demand Draft or by Credit Card. Please Click Here to follow the instruction to fill up the AIPMT 2011 Application form.
You can also ask you query and problem regarding the AIPMT 2011. Just enter your application no to ask your query regarding AIPMT Application form 2011, Online application and others.
https://aipmt.nic.in/Online/Aipmtstatus.aspx

Confirmation of the AIPMT Application Forms 2011 received by the Board would be hosted on Board’s website. Efforts would be made to host the confirmation of all Application Forms received by the Board within 15 days time from the last date of receipt of the Application Forms. After Board hosts the details of all the AIPMT Application Form 2011 on website , candidates may check the status of their Application Form. If any candidate who had sent Application Form through speed post/registered post and against his/her application number the information is available on Board’s website that ‘form is not received’, in such cases candidates are advised to contact to the Board latest by 29.01.2011 along with the following documents:

In case Application Form is submitted Offline -

a) Photocopy of the filled-in Application Form.

b) Original receipt issued by the Post Office for having dispatched the Application Form.

In case Application Form is submitted Online –

a) Photocopy of the computer generated filled in Application Form.

b) Original receipt issued by the Post Office for having dispatched the Application Form.

c) Proof of fee paid (Photocopy of the Demand Draft, if fees remitted through DD/Photocopy of the statement of the Card if fee is paid through Credit Card).

AIPMT 2011 Admit Card :-
Admit card of AIPMT 2011 will be send to your postal address which you have wrote in your application form. It is necessary to have Admit Card when you are going for AIPMT Examination 2011. If you lost your admit card or not received then you also get Duplicate AIPMT Admit card from it's official website.

If you have not received the admit card for the Preliminary Stage Examination to be held on 3rd April, 2011, then the same could be downloaded by obeying the following steps:

a)Download the computer generated admit card in the form of Undertaking on A-4 size paper.
b) Paste the photograph at the appropriate place and get the photograph and the certificate attested by the Principal/Gazetted Officer.
c)Photograph should be similar to the photograph affixed in the application form submitted by you to the CBSE for the AIPMT Examination 2011.
d)To download computer generated AIPMT admit card 2011 enter your Date of Birth and Application Number and then Click Submit Button.

For more informatio on AIPMT application forms, Admit card, Results, notification for Year 2011-12 please check it's official website - http://aipmt.nic.in.

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