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Friday, September 17, 2010

Tamilnadu Police Recruitment 2010 Exam Results | TNUSRB Exam Results 2010 Announced

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Tamil Nadu Uniformed Service Recruitment Board (TNUSRB), Chennai has published and announced the examination result of TN Police recruitment 2010 examination results. Today, Septembet 18th 2010, TNUSRB has published the Provisional select list for CV, PMT, ET & PET for - Men & Women. Candidates will have to wait for TNUSRB 2010 or CV, PMT, ET & PET for Men and Women sort list.

TNUSRB recruitment 2010 is in the process of recruitment of Sub Inspectors of Police, Gr.II Police Constables, Gr II Jail Warders and Firemen. Provisional select list for CV, PMT, ET & PET for Men and Woman PDF file: Click Here

Bank Of India Clerical Exam General Awareness Questions

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Bank Of India Clerical Exam General Awareness Questions

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1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)
2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure
timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)
6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the
State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)
10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to
2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per

cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)
12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)
14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently.
The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)
15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package
of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of
energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)
18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of
the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the
following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the
districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people
by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the
country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the
following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)
28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries
and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)
32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)
33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)
34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance
project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis

(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)
36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this
scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating
Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at
present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority
Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

1. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
Ans : a
2. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
Ans : a
3. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
Ans : c
4. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
Ans : c
5. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth
anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
Ans :c
6. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?

a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
Ans : b
7. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
Ans : d
8. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of
Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
Ans : d
9. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
Ans : b
10. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from Calcutta to
Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
Ans : c
11. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) Smuggling

Ans : c
12. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
Ans : a
13. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
Ans : b
14. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
Ans : c
15. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
Ans : b
16. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as the first
genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
Ans : d
17. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Joseph

c) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
Ans : c
18. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive Principles
of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c
19) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the glories of
Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
Ans : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya
20. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
Ans : c
21. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year
Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
Ans : b
22. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month voyage
around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhuti

b) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
Ans : b
23) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
Ans : c
24) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
Ans : a
25) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
Ans : d
26) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a CLICK HERE FOR MORE JOBVACANCY RESULTS

Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Teaching and Research Aptitude Syllabus MAH SET Paper-I Syllabus

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MAHARASHTRA STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST (SET)

Syllabus for PAPER-I CLICK HERE FOR MORE JOBVACANCY RESULTS

MAHARASHTRA STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST Syllabus for PAPER-I
The main objective is to assess the teaching and research capabilities of the candidates. Therefore, the test is aimed at assessing the teaching and general/research aptitude as well as their awareness. They are expected to possess and exhibit cognitive abilities. Cognitive abilities include comprehension, analysis, evaluation, understanding the structure of arguments and deductive and inductive reasoning. The candidates are also expected to have a general awareness and knowledge of sources of information. They should be aware of interaction between people, environment and natural resources and their impact on quality of life. The details are given in the following sections :
NOTE :
( i ) Each section gets equal weightage : five questions and 10 marks from each
section.
( ii) Whenever pictorial questions are set for the sighted candidates a passage followed by equal number of questions should be set for the visually handicapped candidates.
I. Teaching Aptitude
Teaching : Nature, objectives, characteristics and basic requirements; Learners characteristics; Factors affecting teaching; Methods of teaching; Teaching aids; Evaluation systems.
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II. Research Aptitude
Research : Meaning, characteristics and types; Steps of research; Methods of research; Research Ethics; Paper, article, workshop, seminar, conference and symposium; Thesis writing : its characteristics and format.
III. Reading Comprehension
A passage to be set with questions to be answered.
IV. Communication
Communication : Nature, characteristics, types, barriers and effective classroom communication.
V. Reasoning (Including Mathematical)
Number series; letter series; codes; Relationships; classification.
VI. Logical Reasoning
Understanding the structure of arguments; Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning; Verbal analogies : Word analogy-Applied analogy; Verbal classification;
Reasoning Logical Diagrams : Simple diagrammatic relationship, multidiagrammatic relationship; Venn diagram; Analytical Reasoning.
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VII. Data Interpretation
Sources, acquisition and interpretation of data; Quantitative and qualitative data; Graphical representation and mapping of data.
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VIII. Information and Communication technology (ICT)
ICT : meaning, advantages, disadvantages and uses; General abbreviations and terminology; Basics of internet and e-mailing.
IX. People and Environment
People and environment interaction; Sources of pollution; Pollutants and their impact on human life, exploitation of natural and energy resources; Natural hazards and mitigation.
X. Higher Education System :
Governance, Polity and Administration Structure of the institutions for higher learning and research in India; formal and distance education; professional/technical and general education; value education; governance, polity and administration; concept, institutions and their interactions.

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Lucknow University B.Ed 2nd Counselling Schedule 2010 Procedure

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JEE B.ED. 2010 COUNSELING SCHEDULE (SECOND COUNSELING) COUNSELING LETTERS AND UPDATED INSTRUCTIONS ARE AVAILABLE AT THE UNIVERSITY OF LUCKNOW WEBSITE

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Second Counseling Rules
1. Counseling will be held at the following counseling centers only
a. Dr. BR Ambedkar University, Agra
b. MJP Rohilkhand University, Bareilly
c. VBS Purvanchal University, Jaunpur
d. CSJM University, Kanpur (Center 1)
e. CSJM University, Kanpur (Center 2)
f. Ch. Charan Singh University, Meerut
2. The following candidates (from General Rank 1 to 160000) can participate in the first phase of second counseling:
a. Candidates who were called but did not attended the first counseling held earlier (From 3 – 27 Aug. 2010), or
b. Candidates who attended the first counseling but were not allotted a seat, or
c. Candidates who were allotted seat but are now willing to shift to another college of their choice
3. The second counseling will comprise of two phases:
a. Phase 1 will be for all candidates falling between general rank 1 to160000 whether they appeared in the first counseling or not.
b. Phase 2 will be for candidates falling between general ranks 160001 to 230000.
4. Candidates who have participated in the first counseling, have been allotted a college and have deposited their seat confirmation fee can participate in the Phase 1 of the second counseling for improving their college option.
5. Phase 1 will be a three day process:
a. On day 1 the candidates will get themselves registered
b. On day 2 they will exercise the choice filling
c. On day 3 they will be given the allotment letters.
6. Phase 2 will be a two day process as was done during the first counseling
a. On day 1 the candidates will get their documents verified, deposit the requisite fee and get registered followed by choice filling.
b. On day 2 they will be given the allotment letters.
7. The candidates who have deposited the seat confirmation fee in the first counseling can appear for improvement in the second counseling. They have to pay Rs. 500.00 towards counseling fee. The college fee of such candidates will be transferred to the new college if allotted.
8. All such candidates who have already been allotted a seat and have not deposited their college confirmation fee during the first counseling have forfeited their fee of Rs. 5000.00. Such candidates will be treated as fresh candidates and will now have to pay Rs. 500.00 as counseling fee and Rs. 5000 as advance college fee.
9. For phase 1 of the second counseling (21 Sep. 2010 to 26 Sep. 2010), candidates who fail to turn up on their scheduled date will not be allowed to participate on a later date.
10. No candidate whose general rank is between 1 to160000 will be allowed to participate in Phase 2 of the second counseling under any circumstances.
11. If a candidate who has been allotted a college in the first counseling participates and is allotted a college in the phase 1 of the second counseling, the earlier allotment will be automatically cancelled. The candidate will now have to report to the new college. In case no college is allotted in the second counseling the earlier allotted college will be retained.
12. All Drafts have to be in favor of Finance Officer, University of Lucknow, PAYABLE AT LUCKNOW
13. Counselling may be terminated/extended depending on the availability of seats.

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TNUSRB Results 2010 Tamilnadu Uniform Service Recruitment Board Police Constable Exam Result 2010

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Tamilnadu Uniform Service Recruitment Board Police Constable Exam Result 2010 | TNUSRB Results 2010
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Tamilnadu Uniform Service Recruitment Board Published the Grade II Police Constable Provisional select list for CV, PMT, ET & PET for – Men & Women.

The Tamil Nadu Uniformed Services Recruitment Board is in the process of recruitment of Sub Inspectors of Police, Gr.II Police Constables, Gr II Jail Warders and Firemen.

In terms of the policy of the government that the Board is responsible for carrying out recruitment in a professional manner with fairness and transparency, recruitment will be done purely based on merit and in strict accordance with relevant rules.

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Punjabi University Patiala B.Ed Exam Result 2010 www.punjabiuniversity.ac.in PU B.Ed Results

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Punjabi University Patiala B.Ed Exam Result 2010 | www.punjabiuniversity.ac.in

Punjabi University Patiala B.Ed Examination Result 2010.

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Punjabi University, located at Patiala, is one of the premier institutions of higher education in Punjab, India.
It was established on the 30 April 1962, and is only the second University in the world to be named after a language, after Hebrew University of Israel. Originally the university was conceived as a unitary multi-faculty teaching and research university, and primarily meant for the development and enrichment of Punjabi language and culture, but alive to the social and educational requirements of the state.

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Punjabi University B.Ed Results 2010 www.punjabiuniversity.ac.in Punjabi University Patiala B.Ed Exam Result 2010

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Punjabi University Patiala B.Ed Exam Result 2010 | www.punjabiuniversity.ac.in

Punjabi University Patiala B.Ed Examination Result 2010.

Click Here To Punjabi University B.Ed Results 2010
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Punjabi University, located at Patiala, is one of the premier institutions of higher education in Punjab, India.
It was established on the 30 April 1962, and is only the second University in the world to be named after a language, after Hebrew University of Israel. Originally the university was conceived as a unitary multi-faculty teaching and research university, and primarily meant for the development and enrichment of Punjabi language and culture, but alive to the social and educational requirements of the state.

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Banglore University BCom Part III Exam Result 2010 www.bub.ernet.in University of Banglore Part 3 Result 2010

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University of Banglore Part 3 Result 2010 | www.bub.ernet.in CLICK HERE FOR MORE JOBVACANCY RESULTS

Banglore University Published B.Com Part III Examination Result 2010.

Click Here To Banglore University B.Com Part 3 Examination Result CLICK HERE FOR MORE JOBVACANCY RESULTS

Bangalore University has grown both in size and strength to include a large number of affiliated colleges, P.G. Centres of research and a rich diversity of programme options. In consonance with this expansion, in 1973 the University moved into a new campus ‘Jnana Bharathi’ (JB) located on a sprawling 1,100 acres of land and shifted many of its post-graduate departments to this newly established campus. At present, the JB Campus houses the administrative office a large number of post-graduate departments, Directorates, Centres of higher learning, Gandhi Bhavan, Ambedkar Bhavan, NSS Bhavan, Outdoor Stadium and other support services. The Central College Campus retained as the city campus houses the main examination wing with the office of Registrar Evaluation, city offices of the Vice-Chancellor, Registrar, Finance (Examination part), Academic Staff College, Directorate of Correspondence Courses and Distance Education Centre, Directorate of College Development Council, a few postgraduate departments and support services. Besides, the college also has the Central College Cricket Pavilion where the Karnataka State Cricket Association was first established and trained several cricketers of International repute. Apart from this, in the vicinity of the city campus,the University has two constituent colleges, the University Visvesvaraya College of Engineering (U.V.C.E started in 1917). The third constituent college, the University College of Physical Education (formerly known as the Government College of Physical Education, started in 1959) is located in the JB Campus. Since 1973,the University is functioning from both the campuses- the main campus at Jnana Bharathi and the City Campus at Central College. CLICK HERE FOR MORE JOBVACANCY RESULTS

Sambalpur University BCA Part II Exam Result 2010 www.suniv.ac.in Sambalpur University Part 2 Result 2010

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Sambalpur University BCA Part II Exam Result 2010 www.suniv.ac.in

Sambalpur University published BCA Part II Examination Result 2010

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The Sambalpur University Act was passed by the Orissa Legislature on 10th December, 1966 to fulfill long cherished dream of the people of Western Orissa for establishment of aUniversity. The University started functioning from 1st January, 1967 with Prof.Parsuram Mishra as the first Vice-Chancellor. The University was inaugurated on 4th January, 1967 by Hon’ble Chancellor A.N.Khosla. The University started functioning in 1967 in a rented private building at Dhanupali, Sambalpur and in Government building at Ainthapali, Sambalpur from 1968 – 72. In the year 1973 theUniversity was shifted to the present campus named Jyoti Vihar at Burla.

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www.bankofindia.com Bank of India Clerical Exam Reasoning Solved Sample Questions

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1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana

(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following
will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the
following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T

(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA

(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work fordifferent companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is amarketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D

(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)

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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test Sample Questions SET Papers

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SAMPEL QUESTIONS PAPER- II
1. What is the basis of monopolistic competition?
(A) Product differentiation
(B) Agreement among producers
(C) Cost of production
(D) None of the above
2. The sum and substance of Maslow’s theory of motivation is
(A) Satisfied need is a motivator
(B) Unsatisfied need is not a motivator
(c) Satisfied need is no more a motivator
(D) None of the above
3. By hedging through derivatives the profit will be
(A) increased
(B) stabilised
(C) decreased
(D) None of the above
PAPER-III (A)
1. What are the barriers to communication?
Or
How do you measure the effectiveness of advertising?
PAPER-III (B)
11. What is the pricing strategy in a monopolistic competition?
Or
What are different theories of leadership?
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Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Solved Paper Download online

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Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper
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Selection process of Bank of India Clerical exam:
Bank of India clerical exam selection process consists of two stages:
1 Written test: Both objective & descriptive.
2. Interview.
Final merit list is decided on the basis of marks scored in above two stages taken together.

Pattern of Bank of India Clerical written exam:
Objective test pattern: (300 marks)
The Objective paper of BOI written exam consists of 200 questions worth 300 mark to be answered in 90 minutes. The section-wise distribution of number of questions and marks

Click Here To Download Bank Of India Clerical Exam Sample Question Paper

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www.jharkhandjpsc.org Last date extended for JPSC vacancy for Engineering Colleges in Jharkhand Aug-2010

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Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC)
Circular Road, Ranchi - 834001

Applications are invited from Indian Citizens for following posts in Government Engineering Colleges in Jharkhand :
  • Principal : 03 posts
  • Professor : 27 posts
  • Assistant Professor : 54 posts
  • Lecturer: 150 posts



How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send on or before 30/08/2010, now extended upto 01/10/2010 becuase of amedments in qualification.

For further information and application form, kindly visit http://www.jharkhandjpsc.org/ or click on the image to view/download the details.
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