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Wednesday, September 8, 2010

Delhi Public School Haridwar Half-Yearly Examination Schedule 2010-2011 www.dpshardwar.com DPS Haridwar Half-Yearly Examination Date Sheet 2010-2011

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DPS Haridwar Half-Yearly Examination Date Sheet 2010-2011 | Delhi Public School Haridwar Half-Yearly Examination Schedule 2010-2011 | www.dpshardwar.com

Corporation Bank Clerk Writtent Test Sample Questions

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Corporation Bank Clerk Exam Sample Questions
1. Which of the following can be said about the King’s subjects ?
1. They were all prosperous and could afford fine clothes.
2. They had lost confidence in the King’s ability to rule because he had grown old.
3. They often requested the King to marry and start a family.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
2. When the seed did not germinate after weeks’ efforts why did the farmer’s son change the soil ?
(A) He was persevering by nature
(B) He spent his spare time gardening instead of playing
(C) He loved gardening but was no good at it
(D) He wasted his opportunity to be King
(E) He was the King’s favourite subject
Ans : (A)


3. Why did the King choose the farmer’s son as Gandhara’s future King ?
(A) The King realised that he had a good character and would make a worthy ruler
(B) He knew that he could easily manipulate the farmer’s son
(C) He felt sorry for the farmer’s son and wanted to give him an opportunity
(D) To reward his honesty in not asking his parents for help to grow the plant
(E) He was the one who pointed out the King’s mistake of distributing roasted seeds
Ans : (A)

4. Why did the King distribute seeds to the children of his Kingdom ?
(A) To share his love of gardening with them
(B) To make sure that the future ruler had respect for all living things
(C) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler
(D) To see if they were ambitious and competed fairly
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. Why did the children bring beautiful plants to the palace ?
(A) They wanted to gift them to the King for his garden
(B) It was a sign of affection for the King who was retiring
(C) Their parents had forced them to present flowers to the King
(D) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer’s son to rule
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. What excuse did the farmer’s son give for not being able to grow a plant successfully ?
(A) His father had refused to help him
(B) The soil and fertilizer he had used were not suitable
(C) He had shifted the seed while it was growing
(D) There was something wrong with the seed

(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


7. What was worrying the King’s subjects ?
(A) The King was too old to bear the burden of running a kingdom
(B) The King devoted too much time to gardening
(C) The King was sick and could die at any time
(D) The King had no heir to the throne
(E) The King had selected a farmer’s son to be their King
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The King deliberately roasted the seeds as he did not want to give up his throne
(B) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
(C) Only boys were given the opportunity to prove they were worthy to rule
(D) The King was angry that the farmer’s son had come empty handed
(E) The farmer knew why the seed given to his son would not grow
Ans : (B)
9. What made the King unhappy with the children ?
1. They had not realised that the seeds he had given them were roasted.
2. They had cheated by allowing their parents to grow their plants.
3. Since they had successfully grown plants he was forced to choose one of them as King.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


10. How did the farmer deal with the fact that his son had not been able to grow anything ?
(A) Being a farmer he was ashamed that his son could not cultivate a healthy plant
(B) He was understanding, as it was impossible to grow a plant in three months
(C) He was disappointed because his son would not get the chance to be King
(D) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
11. Ignoring
(A) Unaware
(B) Delaying
(C) Disregarding
(D) Humiliating
(E) Lacking
Ans : (C)
12. Enveloped
(A) Surrounded

(B) Included
(C) Wrapped
(D) Closed
(E) Hid
Ans : (C)
13. Piled
(A) Handled
(B) Poured
(C) Utilised
(D) Provided
(E) Drowned
Ans : (D)
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Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
14. Content
(A) Pitying
(B) Miserable
(C) Sorrow
(D) Unlucky
(E) Unfortunate
Ans : (B)
15. Avid
(A) Unenthusiastic
(B) Efficient
(C) Boring
(D) Impartial
(E) Incompetent
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) When this boy was twelve years old he attended a party given by his parents.
(2) A boy was considered a dunce and his usual place in class was standing in a corner as punishment.
(3) The boy timidly quoted the rest of the poem and named the author.
(4) The guest, a famous writer, was delighted and said “You are a bright boy who will achieve a lot one
day”.
(5) This one word of encouragement changed the boy’s life—he went on to become a famous poet.
(6) One of the guests saw two lines of poetry underneath a painting and wanted to know who the poet was,
but no one knew.
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)


20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)


Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.
These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt
and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. It is impossible (A) to complete (B) the entire (C) project within the specified (D) time frame. All
correct (E)
Ans : (E)


22. The Government is certain (A) to amend (B) the law to prevail (C) the crisis. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
23. Except (A) for a few, the majority (B) of our staff has been recruited (C) locally. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
24. They patiently (A) explained (B) the procedure (C) for appling (D) for a loan to the villagers. All
correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. One can succeed (A) in business unless (B) one is prepared (C) to take risks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
26. Inspite of trying his best, Karthik delivered whatever he had promised.
(A) was unable to deliver what
(B) delivered none of
(C) could not deliver
(D) cannot deliver however
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
27. It was very hot last year that the roads used to be empty in the afternoon.
(A) being so hot
(B) was so hot
(C) had been very hot
(D) was much hotter
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
28. The salaries we pay our employees are equal the ones that commercial banks pay theirs.
(A) are equally like
(B) were a like
(C) is similar to
(D) are equivalent to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
29. To develop their problem solving skills trainees are encouraged to analyse situations and came to
its own solutions.
(A) come up with their
(B) came forward with their
(C) come down with its
(D) come with its
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
30. Overcoming obstacles in the course of her job giving her a lot of self-confidence.
(A) is given her
(B) she has been given
(C) will give her
(D) by giving her
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Rajiv is the best person (A) / to advise you since (B) / he faced plenty of difficulty (C) / while setting
up his business. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
32. The University that (A) / I taught was (B) / located on the (C) / outskirts of the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
33. Most of my (A) / co-workers have been (B) / transferred to various (C) / neighbourly districts. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (D)
34. Though my father spent (A) / a lot of money on (B) / our education he refused to (C) / give us no
pocket money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
35. Often ideas and concepts (A) / are passed on from (B) / one generation to the next (C) / without being
questioned. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
36. Funds that are collected (A) / in the morning has (B) / to be disbursed as (C) / new loans by afternoon.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
37. Your promotion depends (A) / on the number of (B) / projects your handling (C) / during the year. (D)
No error (E)
Ans : (C)
38. Our team has spent (A) / the night entirely (B) / awake trying to decide (C) / what strategy to adopt.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
39. I have finally managed (A) / to convince my parents (B) / to allow myself (C) / to study abroad. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (C)
40. When he took a loan (A) / for the first time (B) / he was so nervous that (C) / he repay it early. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
One day my son called me after his exams. I could make out from his voice that he was …41… “The exam
did not go so well. It was not that I did not know but I made a careless mistake.” I tried to …42… him
saying, “Don’t worry, you will do better next time”. He was not pleased to hear my words. “You don’t
realize how competitive it is here and how difficult it is to …43… anything.”
A few days later I got another call from him. “A …44… thing happened”, he said. “When I got my paper I
saw that I had …45… marks for the question I had answered incorrectly. My friends …46… me to keep
quiet as the Professor must have made a mistake. But you taught me the value of honesty so I emailed him

saying I did not …47… the marks.” His reply was more surprising. “It was …48,” he said. “My interaction
with you throughout the year …49… me that you knew how to solve the problem. That is the reason I gave
you those marks.” I was happier about my son’s …50… than his marks.
41. (A) Bother
(B) Sad
(C) Unwell
(D) Distress
(E) Confused
Ans : (B)
42. (A) Pity
(B) Forgive
(C) Console
(D) Cheer
(E) Sympathise
Ans : (C)
43. (A) Strive
(B) Triumph
(C) Succeed
(D) Want
(E) Achieve
Ans : (E)
44. (A) Thrilled
(B) Routine
(C) Disastrous
(D) Funny
(E) Different
Ans : (D)
45. (A) Assigned
(B) Awarded
(C) Obtain
(D) Received
(E) Given
Ans : (E)
46. (A) Suggested
(B) Advised
(C) Warn
(D) Made
(E) Recommended
Ans : (B)
47. (A) Deserve
(B) Qualify
(C) Need
(D) Receive

(E) Justify
Ans : (A)
48. (A) Knowing
(B) Mistaken
(C) Oversight
(D) Deliberate
(E) Intend
Ans : (D)
49. (A) Persuade
(B) Merited
(C) Convinced
(D) Proved
(E) Informed
Ans : (C)
50. (A) Value
(B) Moral
(C) Truth
(D) Honesty
(E) Potential
Ans : (D)

Tata Institute of Social Sciences Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers TISS Master Degree Entrance Exam Model Question Papers

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SECTION – A

Marks: 15

ANALYTICAL AND NUMERICAL ABILITY
1. In the set of 5 figures below which four are of the same type?

A) D, E, B, A (B) C, B, A, E
(C) A, D, C, E (D) B, C, A, D

2. Below is a series, which of the options provided will continue the series?

3. Which pattern can be folded to make the cube shown in the figure below?

4. Monu was cooking on a gas stove.His cylinder exhausted at the end of the 7th minute, and he finished cooking in the 18th minute by shifting to a kersone stove immediately. He can finish cooking in 14 minutes on agas stove. How much time will he take to cook on a kerosene stove?
(A) 20 minutes (B) 14 minutes
(C) 16 minutes (D) 22 minutes
5. A container of mixed juice contains 1/3rd of orange juice, 20 ml of water and 40 ml of sweet lime (Mausambi) juice. What is the total volume of the mixed juice?
(A) 120ml (B) 90ml
(C) 80ml (D) 150ml
6. An article brings half the cost price as profit. What is its selling price?
(A) 2 times the profit (B) 4 times the profit
(C) 3 times the profit (D) Cannot be found
7. A 2 digit number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder 3. If the number is a prime number, what is the possible number?

(A) 18 (B) 33
(C) 73 (D) 93
8. The syllabus for Maths, Chemistry and Physics exams include 12, 13 and 12 chapters respectively. The Chemistry syllabus was reduced so that the average chapters per subject was 12. By how many chapters was the Chemistry syllabus reduced?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
9. ABCD is a parallelogram with one of its angles equal to 900. Its diagonal is 10cm and one of its sides is equal to 8cm. What is the length of the other side in this parallelogram?
(A) 6 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 10 cm
10. Choose the option that logically continues the series
30. 37, 49, 73, 109, ____
(A) 157 (B) 133
(C) 121 (D) 145
11. Below are two statements are followed by two possible inferences. Choose the correct option.
Statements: All students stay in the hostel. Some of the students are intelligent. So,
Inferences: A Every student is intelligent.
B All the intelligent students stay in the hostel.
(A) Only inference A follows (B) Only inference B follows
(C) Both inference A and B follow (D) Neither inference A nor B follows
For Questions 12-15: Two friends A and M, working in a company, get an equal salary
of Rs 20,000 per month. Given below is the salary utilisation of both A and M in a
month.

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12. What percentage of their salary do A and M spend on electricity respectively?
(A) 5% & 25 % (B) 15% & 20%
(C) 20% & 15% (D) 25% & 15%
13. By what percentage are A’s savings less than that of M?
(A) 25% B) 66.66%
(C) 40% (D) 20%
14. M cuts down the shopping expenses to zero for a particular month and saves that money. What will be the percentage savings of M for that particular month?
(A) 20% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 40%
15. A reduces transportation expenditure to Rs. 2000 to save money. Which of the following must hold TRUE?
(A) The percentage decrease in transportation expenditure of A is 25%.
(B) A’s salary has been reduced to Rs. 18000.
(C) A’s savings now become equal to M’s savings.
(D) A has sold the car.

SECTION – B

Marks: 15

Marks: 20

LANGUAGE ABILITY
w w w.w a y 2 f r e s h e r s . c o m
For Questions 16-20: Please read the passage below and answer the questions that follow Towards the end of the 17th century, the British East India Company exported Indian fabrics to other countries. According to a French traveller of the 17th century, “the Indian cotton fabrics clothed everyone – from Cape of Good Hope to China, man and woman, from head to foot”. Before the introduction of mechanised spinning in the early 19th century, all Indian cottons and silks were only hand woven. Preserved in museums around the world, are samples of Indian handmade fabrics, including that found in the ruins of Mohenjodaro. But many expressions of this traditional skill – Sambalpuri of Orissa, Jamdhani of West Bengal, Leheria of Gujarat, Paithan of Maharashtra, Ikkat of Andhra Pradesh and the triple-ply silks of Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu) – are vibrantly alive today. Though every state is home to a range of unique fabrics in hundreds of designs, colours and textures, Indian fabrics constitute less than 2 per cent of the world textile trade.
16. The Indian fabrics referred to in the passage are …
(A) All hand woven / hand made
(B) Usually made of silk and cotton
(C) All of antique value
(D) All of the above
17. The expression ‘fabrics clothed everyone … from head to toe’ appears in the passage. This refers to …
(A) Clothes which fit well.
(B) A cloth that can completely cover a person’s body
(C) Clothing made for all parts of the body.
(D) None of the above.
18. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
(A) India, even today, makes hand woven fabrics.
(B) India stopped making hand woven fabrics in the early19th century.
(C) Kancheepuram is famous for Leheria fabrics.
(D) French travellers exported Indian fabrics in the 17th century

19. From the passage one can infer that…
(A) In the 17th century, a lot of French people visited India.
(B) At some point in history, Indian fabrics were popular across the world.
(C) Indian fabrics have not been able to keep up with the changes in international
fashion.
(D) If not for the British, Indian fabrics would never have been exported to other
countries.
20. According to the author, which of the following is a reason for the low percentage
contribution of Indian fabrics to world textile trade?
(A) Indian fabrics do not have much variety in terms of colour and texture.
(B) Indian fabrics are mostly handmade and hence not up to international standards.
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
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For Questions 21 and 22: Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blank in the
sentences:
21. I have ______________ her name for the post.
(A) recommended (B) commended
(C) demonstrated (D) distressed
22. Due to delayed monsoons, prices of vegetables have risen ________. This has made
certain vegetables unaffordable to the common man.
(A) immediately (B) exponentially
(C) eventfully (D) simultaneously
23. Choose the option so that each pair of words is related in the similar manner.
Poem : Sculpture :: Pen : _____
(A) Chisel (B) Tool
(C) Sculptor (D) Rock
For Questions 24 and 25: Choose the most appropriate option of two words, to fill the
two blanks in the sentences.
24. She received a standing ______ for her _____ performance.
(A) ovation … dull (B) claps … immense
(C) provocation … deliberate (D) ovation … enchanting

25. I am ______ to ______ home.
(A) going … go (B) planning … rush
(C) seeing … buy (D) run … going
For Questions 26, 27 and 28: Choose the option that contains a grammatically incorrect
sentence.
26. (A) Wild flowers often grow around the well near to the temple.
(B) Wild flowers often growing around the well near the temple.
(C) Wild flowers often growing around the well near to the temple.
(D) Wild flowers often grow around the well near the temple.
27. (A) Why he is talking rudely always?
(B) Why does he always talk rudely?
(C) Why does he always talk so rude?
(D) Why he is talking rudely always?
28. (A) Did you remember to take the keys?
(B) Did you remember taking the keys?
(C) Do you remembered taking the keys?
(D) Do you remember to take up the keys?
For Questions 29 and 30: Given are sets of sentences. They need to be arranged in a
sequence to form a coherent paragraph. Pick the option which gives the best sequence.
29. A Raag expresses the structure of the melody.
B Taal concerns itself with rhythm.
C There are more than 200 such Raags in Hindustani classical music.
D Raag and Taal are the fundamental elements of Hindustani classical music.
(A) ABCD (B) BADC
(C) DABC (D) DACB
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30. A However, all of these have made the greatest impact in the last century.
B Throughout this expansion, new technologies have been integrated into the mainstream.
C Since its development, roughly 10,000 years ago, agriculture has expanded
vastly in geographical coverage and yield.
D Agricultural practices such as irrigation, crop rotation, fertilizers, and pesticides were also developed over the centuries.
(A) CDBA (B) DBAC
(C) CBDA (D) DBAC
For Questions 31 and 32: Choose the word that is different from the remaining words.
31. (A) Relation (B) Characteristic
(C) Trait (D) Attribute
32. (A) Sympathy (B) Empathy
(C) Apathy (D) Understanding
33. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the words/phrases that is highlighted in the sentence.
This shopkeeper goes an extra mile to ensure that customers get the benefits of all special schemes.
(A) does more than expected
(B) shies away from physical labour
(C) makes no effort
(D) None of the above
34. Read the paragraph and select the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph.
The earliest forms of pottery discovered in the Indus valley date back to around 5000BC. These are similar to baskets in shape and most of the designs on these vessels are identical to woven motifs on earlier baskets. These decorative motifs were not just for ornamentation, but definitely had some ritual significance.
(A) Indus valley had designs similar to woven motifs on everything including its pottery and these had ritual significance.
(B) The pottery in the Indus valley had ritual significance.
(C) The earliest forms of pottery in the Indus valley had a basket shape and designs similar to woven motifs having ritual significance.
(D) Indus valley’s earliest pottery was made around 5000BC and was of basket shape which was of ritual significance.
35. Choose the option that best replaces the highlighted part in the sentence.
The budget for this project being low has become an issue for the director.
(A) The budget for this project being low (B) The project’s budget being low
(C) The project’s low budget (D) This low budget project
w w w.w a y 2 f r e s h e r s . c o m
SECTION – C

Marks: 15

AWARENESS OF GENERAL AND SOCIAL ISSUES
36. Which of the following rivers is called the sorrow of Bihar?
(A) Gandaki (B) Kosi
(C) Bramhaputra (D) Mahananda
37. UNESCO is a United Nations agency. UNESCO stands for ________________.
(A) United Nations Environmental, Social and Cultural Organisation
(B) United Nations Ecological, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(C) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(D) United Nations Educational, Social and Cultural Organisation
38. Which of the following has never held the position of the Chief Justice of India?
(A) V. N. Khare (B) Y. K. Sabharwal
(C) R. C. Lahoti (D) R. S. Sarkaria
39. In his book, “On the origin of species”, Charles Darwin proposed that all species had evolved through a process of ______________.
(A) Divine creation (B) Coincidental breeding
(C) Natural selection (D) Natural diversification
40. A mammal named “Dolly” was the first mammal to be successfully cloned from an adult cell. Dolly was a _______.
(A) Lab mouse (B) Chimpanzee
(C) Orangutan (D) Sheep
41. Who out of the following, never visited the Indian subcontinent?
(A) Hsüan-tsang from China (B) Queen Victoria of United Kingdom
(C) Alexander the Great of Macedon (D) Ghengis Khan of Mongolia
42. As of the year 2009, which of the following words appear in the preamble to the Constitution of India?
(A) Empire (B) Socialist
(C) Welfare state (D) Both B and C
43. ______________ is the highest wind energy producing state in the country.
(A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) None of the above.

44. India Gate is located at _____________ while the Gateway of India is located at
________________.
(A) Mumbai, Agra (B) Mumbai, New Delhi
(C) New Delhi, Mumbai (D) New Delhi, Khyber Pass
45. India’s GDP growth during the financial year 2008-09 was ____________.
(A) 8.1% – 9% (B) 7.1% – 8%
(C) 6.1% – 7% (D) 5.1% – 6%
46. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is ____________.
(A) a programme for universalisation of educational content in all primary schools.
(B) a programme for ensuring that everyone irrespective of age or gender has access to education.
(C) a programme for universalisation of elementary education.
(D) Both A and C.
47. The 2016 Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in ____________.
(A) Chicago (B) Rio de Janeiro
(C) Madrid (D) Tokyo
48. What was the name of the organization founded and run by Mother Teresa?
(A) Sisters of Loreto (B) Sisters of Charity
(C) Loreto Convent (D) Missionaries of Charity
49. 28) Ramon Magsaysay – after whom the Magsaysay awards are named – belonged to _______________.
(A) United States of America (B) People’s Republic of China
(C) Republic of the Philippines (D) Republic of India
50. Which, out of the following civil services fall under the category of All India Services?
(A) Indian Administrative Service (B) Indian Police Service
(C) Indian Forest Service (D) All of the above

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IBM Placement Paper Held on 22nd August 2010 IBM Latest Placement Paper 2010

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IBM Placement Paper Held on 22nd August 2010
IBM Placement Paper Pattern
1.Data matrices
2.Number Series
3.Reasoning (Quantitative Aptitude)

Each paper is different no option of working as you like, the order is followed strictly and we can go for other paper only after one another. Each section has its own time limit.

Time duration for different sections is:
1.Data matrices ( 15min)
2.Number Series ( 4min )
3.Reasoning ( 15 min)

Initially we have to start with Data matrices when the invigilator says start. It contains 15 questions and we should answer them in 15min. No negative marking in this section. When time ends invigilator says stop. Each question has its own arrangement and does not depend on the previous one. Just take care of it and perform as fast as possible.

And again he says start then we should start Number series. It contains of 20 questions and should be answered in 4min. This section requires high accuracy and speed. This section too has no negative marking. Series from R S Agarwal is more than sufficient. If u can’t find the logic then skip to next one and don’t waste time on working out with one question.

Next when the invigilator says start we have to start Reasoning. It consists of 12 questions and not so easy and requires lot of calculation. So don’t keep hope on this section and do better in the above rounds. That’s hold your qualifying mark. Time for this section is 15min.

Bangladesh Primary Assistant Teacher VIVA Result 2010 www.dpe.gov.bd DPE Bangladesh Primary Teacher Assistant Result 2010

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DPE Bangladesh Primary Teacher Assistant Result 2010 | Primary Assistant Teachers VIVA Results 2010 | Bangladesh Primary Teacher Result 2010 | www.dpe.gov.bd

Bangladesh Primary Teachers Recruitment Board VIVA Result 2010

Click Here To Primary Teacher Assistant Result 2010
Bangladesh is situated to the eastern side of the Indian Subcontinent, flanked by India in The West, North and North-East and Myanmar to the South-East and Nepal slightly removed to the North. It is situated between 20 0 34′ and 26 0 38′ North Latitude and 88 0 01′ and 92 0 41′ East Longitude. It has an area of 147,570 Sq. Km. and a population of nearly 128 million. It has a population density of 867 persons per Sq. Km., which is the highest in world.

Bangladesh is a tropical country. Threaded by rivers, dotted with paddy fields and covered by lush green vegetation, Bangladesh is famous for its natural beauty. Due to the monsoon rainfall and the silt carried by the three great rivers, the Ganges, the Brahmaputra and the Meghna, the soil of Bangladesh is also very fertile.

Kerala MBBS Admission 2010 Merit List www.kpmcma.net KPMCMA MBBS Admission Merit List 2010

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Kerala Private Medical College Management Association (KPMCMA) Published The MBBS Admission 2010 Merit List

Notification

The merit list of candidates, applied for admission to MBBS, 2010 to 10 member colleges of the Kerala Private Medical College Management Association pursuant to the Admission Notice issued by the Association on 01-09-2010 arranged in the order of their position in the ranked list of candidates at the Common Entrance Test, 2010 conducted by the Commissioner for Entrance Examinations, Kerala is published below. The merit list is provisional and subject to further orders of the Honourable Supreme Court of India in SLP No.23830-2/2010 pending before the Court and subject to satisfaction of the eligibility criteria foradmission to MBBS prescribed by the Medical Council of India, the Government and Kerala University of Health and Allied Sciences. The Roll number and Rank of the candidates at the Common Entrance Test, 2010 are noted against the names of the candidates. The list has been drawn up taking into consideration the claims made by the candidates in the application form submitted to the Association and or documents produced along with the application.

Also the provisional allotment of candidates from the merit list is published below. The inclusion of name in the allotment list is provisional and subject the further orders of the Honourable Supreme Court of India and the relevant conditions regarding final allotment andadmission as specified in the prospectus. The candidates included in the provisional allotment list are directed to submit to the Secretary, Kerala Private Medical College Management Association Demand Draft for Rs.5,50,000/- (Rupees Five Lakhs and Fifty Thousand only) towards tuition fee for the First Year of the MBBS Course and another Demand Draft for Rs.5,00,000/- (Rupees Five Lakhs only) towards refundable interest free deposit drawn in favour the Secretary, Kerala Private Medical College Management Association payable at SBT Main Branch, Statue, Thiruvananthapuram so as to reach the same to the addressee before 5.00 p.m on 11-09-2010. Those who fail to do as specified above will forfeit their claim for final allotment. The candidates finally allotted foradmission have to submit to the college a bank guarantee from a Nationalized Bank or Scheduled Bank undertaking to pay Rs.5,50,000.00 (Rupees Five Lakhs Fifty Thousand only) each to the college on first day of August 2011, on first day of August 2012, on first day of August 2013 and on first day of August 2014 towards the tuition fee for four years without any reservation whether the candidate continues or discontinues his/ her studies in the college.

Click Here To Merit List

TISS Master’s Degree Admission Entrance Test Pattern Tata Institute of Social Science Master’s Degree Admission Entrance Exam Scheme

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PART – I
INSTRUCTIONS

Please read the following carefully before making an attempt to take the Test

Total marks allotted 50
No. of questions50
Time allotted 45 minutes
Sectional time limitNo
Sectional cut offNo
Negative markingNo

1. This booklet contains 12 pages including the blank ones. As soon as you open the booklet, please confirm that all the pages are intact and printed correctly. 2. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, or any other device.
3. Fill up all the details, as indicated on top of the TEST BOOKLET and OMR Sheet.
4. Enter correctly your Enrolment number both on the TEST BOOKLET and OMR Sheet.
5. Questions in this booklet span across the following sections


Marks
SECTION A ANALYTICAL AND NUMERICAL ABILITY15w w w.w a y 2 f r e s h e r s . c o m
SECTION B LANGUAGE ABILITY20
SECTION C AWARENESS OF GENERAL AND SOCIAL ISSUES 15w w w.w a y 2 f r e s h e r s . c o m
TOTAL 50

PART-II
Subject Test

BISE Larkana Sindh SSC Part I Annual Exam Results 2010 www.biselrk.edu.pk BISELRK SSC Part I Annual Exam Result 2010

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BISE Larkana Sindh SSC Part I Annual Exam Results 2010 | BISELRK SSC Part I Annual Exam Result 2010 | www.biselrk.edu.pk

Boards of Intermediate and Secondary Education Sindh Published SSC Part I Annual Examination Result 2010.

Click Here To SSC Part I Annual Examination Result 2010

The governor of Sindh / Controlling Authority of Boards of Intermediate and Secondary Education Sindh was pleased to amend the Sindh Boards of Intermediate and Secondary Education Ordinance 1972, and bifurcated the Board of Intermediate and Secondary Education Sukkur by promulgating an ordinance in exercise of the powers conferred upon him under clause (1) of article 128 of the constitution of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan and subsequently passed by Provincial Assembly of Sindh on 17th December 1995, under which the Board of Intermediate and Secondary Education Larkana was established, having a jurisdiction of three districts in the first instance, viz Larkana, Shikarpur, Jacobabad. Thereafter two Talukas of District Dadu and Khairpur Nathan Shah were also included in its Jurisdiction. It boundaries are in west with Balochistan, in east with Sukkur division, in north with Balochistan and the Punjab and south with Hyderabad division. Mr. Ali Nawaz Palijo took over as a first chairman on 19th December 1995 with a team of four officers and five officials given by the Board of Intermediate and Secondary Education Sukkur.

OU MCA Result July 2010 www.osmania.ac.in Osmania University MCA Exam Result July 2010

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Osmania University MCA Exam Result July 2010 | OU MCA Result July 2010 | www.osmania.ac.in

Osmania University Will Publishes MCA 1-1 Semester Backlog, 1-2 Semester Regular, 2-1 Semester Supplementary, 2-2 Semester regular, 3-1 semester Supplementary and 3-2 semester regular examination july 2010 result.

Click Here To Osmania University MCA Supplementary and Regular Examination Result July 2010

Osmania University is a public university situated in the city of Hyderabad in Andhra Pradesh, India. It is one of the oldest modern universities in India. It was the first IndianUniversity to have Urdu language as medium of instruction. It is one of the largest university systems in the subcontinent with over 300,000 students on its various campuses and affiliated colleges.

Central Bank Specialist Officers Recruitment Application Forms 2010 www.centralbankofindia.co.in Central Bank Specialist Officers Selection Procedure

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Recruitment of Specialist Category Officers in MMG Scale III, SMG Scale IV and on Contractual Appointment – 2010.

IMPORTANT: LAST DATE OF RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS – 29.09.2010
SELECTION PROCEDURE

The eligible candidates will be called for personal interview and the decision of the bank in this regard shall be final.

5. SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION

Eligible candidates have to submit their applications in the given format (Annexure A).
Last date for receipt of application is 29.09.2010. No applications shall be entertained beyond the stipulated date. Incomplete applications will be rejected.
Completed application should be sent in a closed envelope, Superscribing “Application for the post of ———————————-”

To,
General Manager- HRD,
Central Bank of India,
Chander Mukhi, 17th floor,
Nariman Point
Mumbai- 400 021

6. APPLICATION FEE

Application fee is Rs.1000/- payable by way of Demand Draft drawn on any Nationalised/Scheduled Bank drawn in favour of “Central Bank of India- Recruitment of Specialist Officers-2010” and payable at Mumbai

7. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
a) While applying for the posts, the applicant should ensure that he / she fulfills the eligibility and other norms mentioned above and that the particulars furnished are correct in all respects. In case it is detected at any stage of recruitment that a candidate does not fulfill the eligibility norms and / or that he / she has furnished any incorrect / false information or has suppressed any material fact(s), his / her candidature will automatically stand cancelled. If any of the above shortcoming(s) is / are detected even after appointment, his / her services are liable to be terminated without any notice.

b) In case of suitable and deserving cases, any of the requirements and conditions of eligibility mentioned above, may be relaxed at the discretion of the Management. The Management reserves the right to fill or not to fill the above advertised position without assigning any reason thereof.

c) Mere submission of application against the advertisement and apparently fulfilling the criteria as prescribed in the advertisement would not bestow on him / her right to be called forinterview.

d) Candidates serving in Government/Public Sector Undertakings (including banks) should send their application through proper channel and produce a “No Objection Certificate” from their employer at the time of interview, in the absence of which their Candidature may not be considered.

For More Details and Application Forms Click Here

BU B.Ed 1st Year Result 2010 www.bub.ernet.in Bangalore University B.Ed 1st Year Results 2010

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Bangalore University B.Ed 1st Year Results 2010 BU B.Ed 1st Year Result 2010 www.bub.ernet.in

Bangalore University Will Publishes B.Ed 1st Year Examination Result 2010.

Click Here To Bangalore University B.Ed 1st Result Updates

About Bangalore University
Bangalore University located in the Garden City of Bangalore aptly hailed as the “IT capital of India” was established in July 1964 as an offshoot of the University of Mysore, primarily to include institutions of Higher learning located in the metropolitan city of Bangalore and the districts of rural Bangalore, Kolar. Initially, the two premier colleges of the city, the Central College(CC) and the University Vivesvaraya College of Engineering formed the nucleus of the Bangalore University. Soon after the establishment of the Bangalore University, as a first step in the reorganization of courses of instructions, the University introduced Honours courses in the year 1965-66.

Three-year honours courses in Botany, Chemistry, Economics, English, Geology, Kannada, Mathematics and Zoology which were conducted only at the University postgraduate departments, attracted many brilliant students. All honours-passed students were admitted to post-graduate courses on priority and B.A. and B.Sc. graduates who marginally missed admission to the postgraduate courses were given an opportunity to join the final year honours course and seek admission to post-graduate courses thereafter. Since 1964,

Bangalore University has grown both in size and strength to include a large number of affiliated colleges, P.G. Centres of research and a rich diversity of programme options. In consonance with this expansion, in 1973 the University moved into a new campus ‘Jnana Bharathi’ (JB) located on a sprawling 1,100 acres of land and shifted many of its post-graduate departments to this newly established campus. At present, the JB Campus houses the administrative office a large number of post-graduate departments, Directorates, Centres of higher learning, Gandhi Bhavan, Ambedkar Bhavan, NSS Bhavan, Outdoor Stadium and other support services. The Central College Campus retained as the city campus houses the main examination wing with the office of Registrar Evaluation, city offices of the Vice-Chancellor, Registrar, Finance (Examination part), Academic Staff College, Directorate of Correspondence Courses and Distance Education Centre, Directorate of College Development Council, a few postgraduate departments and support services. Besides, the college also has the Central College Cricket Pavilion where the Karnataka State Cricket Association was first established and trained several cricketers of International repute. Apart from this, in the vicinity of the city campus, the University has two constituent colleges, the University Visvesvaraya College of Engineering (U.V.C.E started in 1917). The third constituent college, the University College of Physical Education (formerly known as the Government College of Physical Education, started in 1959) is located in the JB Campus. Since 1973, the University is functioning from both the campuses- the main campus at Jnana Bharathi and the City Campus at Central College.

Bangalore University has completed forty one years of fruitful existence and has come to be hailed as one of the largest universities of Asia. Though original intended to be a federal university, it has eventually emerged as an affiliating University. The University has been accredited in 2001 by NAAC and has received Five Star Status. Academically, the university is structured into Six faculties- Arts, Science, Commerce and Management , Education, Law and Engineering. It has 41 post-graduate departments, One post-graduate Centre at Kolar, (started during 1994-95), Three constituent college, 473 affiliated colleges ( of which 88 have PG courses) and several other Centers and Directorates of higher learning and research under its purview. AT present the University offers 51 Post-graduate courses.

SOL Delhi university Results 2010 www.south.du.ac.in School of Open Learning Delhi Results 2010

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SOL Delhi university Results 2010 | School of Open Learning Results 2010 | www.south.du.ac.in

School of Open Learning Delhi will Published B.Com Examination Result 2010

Click Here To SOL Delhi Result 2010.

The University of Delhi is the premier university of the country and is known for its high standards in teaching and research and attracts eminent scholars to its faculty. It was established in 1922 as a unitary, teaching and residential university by an Act of the then Central Legislative Assembly. The President of India is the Visitor, the Vice President is the Chancellor and the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India is the Pro-Chancellor of the University.

Ever since its inception, a strong commitment to excellence in teaching and research has made the University of Delhi a role-model and path-setter for other universities in the country. Its rich academic tradition has always attracted the most talented students who later on went on to make important contributions to their society.

When the University took birth, only three colleges existed in Delhi then: St. Stephen’s College founded in 1881, Hindu College founded in 1899 and Ramjas College founded in 1917, which were subsequently affiliated to it. The University thus had a modest beginning with just three colleges, two faculties (Arts and Science) and about 750 students. In October 1933, the University offices and the Library shifted to the Viceregal Lodge Estate, and till today this site houses the offices of the main functionaries of the University. The University has grown into one of the largest universities in India. At present, there are 16 faculties, 86 academic departments, 77 colleges and 5 other recognised institutes spread all over the city, with 132435 regular students (UG: 114494,PG:17941) and 261169 students (UG:258831,PG:2338) in non-formal education programme.

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