The huge numbers of candidates are looking and searching UPSC NDA II 2013 answer key, UPSC Answer Sheet for NDA II exam 2013, National Defence Academy II Answer Key 2013, download NDA 2 exam 2013 solutions and NDA II 2013 Solved Paper Cut off marks in google.com.
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the National Defence Academy (NDA) II Exam2013 held on 11thAugust 2013 (Sunday) Duration NDA 2 exam is 2:30 Hours but Math carries 300 Marks and General Ability Test carries 600 Marks.
The official UPSC National Defence Academy Exam 2013 answer key will be declared after NDA 2 2013 examination. The exam was conduct for Appoint into Indian army like air force, navy etc.
UPSC NDA II Answer Key 2013 will publish soon on the official website at www.upsc.gov.in and also uploading NDA 2 2013 Solution Paper with all set like Code A, B, C, D.
We are advised you please visit this answer key page on regular basis, because we are published PDF file link of NDA 2 Exam 2013 Solved answer sheet and cut off marks for both papers very soon.
All candidates download UPSC NDA 2 answer sheet 2013 then calculate their marks on the basis of NDA II answer key 2013.
Dear all candidates download UPSC NDA 2 Answer sheet Aug 2013 and cut off with SET A, SET B, SET C, SET D.
Showing posts with label Answer Key. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Answer Key. Show all posts
Monday, August 12, 2013
Monday, June 27, 2011
KPSC SDA G.K ENGLISH & KANNADA KEY ANSWER 2011 www.kpsc.kar.nic.in KPSC FDA EXAM KEY ANSWER DATED: 19-06-2011
KPSC SDA G.K ENGLISH & KANNADA KEY ANSWER 2011 www.kpsc.kar.nic.in KPSC FDA EXAM KEY ANSWER DATED: 19-06-2011
sda key answer, kpsc notification, ksp, kpsc fda key answers, kpsc second division assistant answer key 2011, kpsc second division assistant answers, kpsc sda solutions.
KEY ANSWERS FOR THE POSTS OF SECOND DIVISION ASSISTANT
CLICK HERE FOR FORMATS FOR FILING OBJECTION
GENERAL KANNADA
GENERAL ENGLISH
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
KPSC SDA key answers can be downloaded for General Knowledge, General English and General Kannada. SDA key answer are available in PDF format. If anyone has objections to the key answers of Second Division Assistants Examination 2011, .
KPSC SDA 2011 KEY ANSWER. Answer key and solution of KPSC June 5, 2011 would be published at http://kpsc.kar.nic.in/. The said exam was held 5-6-2011. KPSC has published REVISED KEY ANSWERS OF WARDENS AND DRAFTING ASSISTANTS and 418 .
sda key answer, kpsc notification, ksp, kpsc fda key answers, kpsc second division assistant answer key 2011, kpsc second division assistant answers, kpsc sda solutions.
KEY ANSWERS FOR THE POSTS OF SECOND DIVISION ASSISTANT
CLICK HERE FOR FORMATS FOR FILING OBJECTION
GENERAL KANNADA
GENERAL ENGLISH
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
KPSC SDA key answers can be downloaded for General Knowledge, General English and General Kannada. SDA key answer are available in PDF format. If anyone has objections to the key answers of Second Division Assistants Examination 2011, .
KPSC SDA 2011 KEY ANSWER. Answer key and solution of KPSC June 5, 2011 would be published at http://kpsc.kar.nic.in/. The said exam was held 5-6-2011. KPSC has published REVISED KEY ANSWERS OF WARDENS AND DRAFTING ASSISTANTS and 418 .
Sunday, June 26, 2011
www.jakbpee.nic.in JKCET 2011 Answer Key www.jakbopee.org JKBOPEE CET 2011 Answer Keys The J&K Board Of Professional Entrance Examinations
The Jammu & Kashmir Board of Professional Entrance Examination (JAKBOPEE) has declared the JK BOPEE CET 2011 (Common Entrance Test) Anwer Keys published online through official website www.jakbopee.org. The Answer Key to Question Papers for .JKCET 2010 Answer Key will be published soon by the Jammu and Kashmir Board of Professional Entrance Examinations. The JKCET 2010 download link for Answer Key will be published here as shortly as it comes out. Every Year JKCET is .www.job2fresher.com
MERIT LIST OF CANDIDATES APPEARED IN POLYTECHNIC DIPLOMA ENTRANCE TEST - 2009
Common Entrance Test is currently the most effective and commonly resorted to mechanism for selecting candidates for admission to professional courses. The Apex Court has aptly underlined the utility and indispensability of Common Entrance Tests for purposes of admission to professional courses. An entrance examination tests the knowledge of the candidates in a particular field. It also tests their problem solving and time managing abilities as well as their competitive skills and qualities . Over and above, Entrance Test ensures uniformity of admission procedure, merit –based selection of candidates, and transparency in admission process . In a nutshell, common entrance examination is a reliable and an efficient method of selection of candidates for undergoing professional courses which is followed across the country.
www.job2fresher.com
Jammu and Kashmir Board of Professional Entrance Examinations, earlier Competent Authority Entrance Examinations, is entrusted with the task of conducting entrance examinations for granting admission to various undergraduate and postgraduate professional courses in the State. The Board has been executing this task fairly and efficiently since its inception.
The Board has been set up by a legislative enactment – Jammu and Kashmir Board of Professional Entrance Examinations Act, 2002 . The objective of establishing the Board by a legislative measure is to accord functional autonomy to it and to free it from external interference and extraneous considerations in respect of making selection of candidates for admission purpose.
In recent times, fast emerging new technologies have impacted all fields of human activity. Public and private institutions and organizations across the world are continuously improving upon their working by making use of new technologies and innovations. The Board can thus bring about more efficiency and speed in organizing Entrance Examinations and in carrying out subsequent admission process by adopting new technologies and facilities. Hence, it is an opportune time for the Board to host its own website. By launching its website, student community-aspirants for various entrance examinations- will be especially benefited. They can easily access information concerning entrance examination related matters on internet at places convenient to them. The website will also facilitate and increase the interaction and communication between the functionaries of the Board and the students . More importantly, website of the Board shall make its functioning and activities more transparent and open to public scrutiny. We would welcome any suggestions and comments from the students, their parents and members of the general public in respect of format and content of the website for widening its scope and reach.
CBSE CTET 2011 Answer Key Question Paper Solution Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) – 2011 is scheduled to be held on Sunday, the 26th June
CBSE CTET 2011 Answer Key Question Paper Solution
CTET Answer Key and Solution to Question Paper 2011 is being made available by http://www.job2fresher.com on the very same day. Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) – 2011 is scheduled to be held on Sunday, the 26th June, 2011 at 1178 Centres in 86 cities across the country including 2 centres abroad. In all 7.9 lacs candidates have been registered for this examination.
We at http://www.job2fresher.com will be providing the answer keys to the Paper-1 and Paper-2 of CTET Question papers that is being held on 26 June 2011. The Answer Keys will be uploaded on the website by the evening on June 26, 2011. All the candidates are advised to visit the site for CTET answer keys and question paper solutions.
CBSE has set 60% score to pass the exam. The certificate will be issued only to those candidates who manage to score 60% or more marks in this exam. The score will be valid for seven years. If someone gets less than 60% marks in CTET exam, he/she can reappear next year. Currently CTET exam is being conducted every year.
Central Teacher Eligibility Test 2011
Sunday, June 12, 2011
www.iasonline.org CSAT 2011 www.upsc.gov.in IAS – ESSAY QUESTION PAPER Civil Services Aptitude Test 2011 ANSWER KEY ONLINE
CSAT 2011 conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) first time. Civil Services CSAT 2011 Prelims Examination consists of two papers of objective type carrying a maximum of 400 marks.
The prime minister has approved the proposal for the introduction of Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) in place of the existing Preliminary Examination for the Civil Services Examination (CSE).
IAS eNews. Read about IAS in the latest issue of IAS eNews. ... IAS is formally recognized by the EPA to accredit laboratories to conduct testing for ENERGY ...
www.iasonline.org
UPSC : IAS – ESSAY QUESTION PAPER 2010
UPSC : IAS – ESSAY QUESTION PAPER 2010
The new aptitude-based test will come into effect from May 2011 exam.
About 1.7 lakh candidates write the IAS preliminary exams conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) in May every year. Successful candidates then have to clear the main exam and an interview to be appointed as civil servants.
This will be the first time that an aptitude test will be held as part of the civil service exams.
The change followed allegations that many students memorised subject-based text material and reproduced them in the exam. The modified pattern will provide a level-playing field to all candidates as they have to answer the same set of questions, the sources said.
Each of the two papers will have objective-type questions that will carry 200 marks and the candidates will have two hours to answer them. The candidates will have to clear both papers.
There were two section first section consist of normal general studies (G.S.) Candidates were unaware of second paper which was held first time ? Many students didn’t appear in CSAT 2011 due to second paper since they were not sure about the type of Paper asked in exam and they didn’t want to loose an attempt in UPSC.
Answer Key and Solution for All the Set of CSAT 2011 will be updated just after the exam… PLZ WAIT >>>>>>>>>>>>
Sunday, June 5, 2011
SSC CONSTABLE EXAM ANSWER SHEET 5th june 2011 SSC CONSTABLE EXAM ANSWER SHEET 5th june 2011 www.sscnr.org
ssc constable exam-2011 for BSF, CRPF, SSB & CISF answer key of question paper will be published soon .
www.sscnr.org staff selection commission (N.R) New Delhi RECTT. FOR THE POST OF CONSTABLES (GD) IN BSF, CISF, SSB & CPRF EXAM-2011(WRITTEN EXAM
www.sscnr.org staff selection commission (N.R) New Delhi RECTT. FOR THE POST OF CONSTABLES (GD) IN BSF, CISF, SSB & CPRF EXAM-2011(WRITTEN EXAM
Friends
I Publish Answer key Of Ssc Exam Held on 5-06-2011
TEST FORM NO. 444 OL 4
(A) GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
(B) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & AWEARNESS
(C) ELEMENTARY MATHMATICS
(D) (1)ENGLISH/ (2)HINDI
PLz Comment for wrong ans
(A)
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. C
8.B
9.C
10.B
11.A
12.C
13.B
14.D
15.C
16.B
17.B
18.B
19.D
20.B
21.C
22.D
23.B
24.A
25.C
(B)
26.D
27.A
28.C
29.C
30.A
31.D
32.A
33.B
34.D
35.B
36.C
37.A
38.D
39.B
40.B
41.D
42.C
43.C
44.A
45.C
46.B
47.A
48.C
49.B
50.A
(C)
51.D
52.A
53.B
54.B
55.C
56.C
57.D
58.B
59.C
60.D
61.A
62.D
63.A
64.C
65.B
66.C
67.B
68.A
69.A
70.C
71.D
72.B
73.A
74.A
75.B(D) HINDI
76.C
77.B
78.B
79.C
80.B
81.C
82.D
83.C
84.B
85.A
86.B
87.D
88.C
89.D
90.B
91.D
92.B
93.A
94.C
95.C
96.C
97.C
98.A
99.B
100.B
Candidates of Northern Region qualified in PET/PST for written Examination for Recruitment of Constables (GD) in CISF, BSF, CRPF and SSB Exam 2011 to be held on 05-06-2011 (Sunday).
Dear Candidates,
The admission certificates to all prima-facie eligible candidates qualified in PET/PST for written Examination to Recruitment of Constables (GD) in CISF, BSF, CRPF and SSB Exam 2011 to be held on 05-06-2011 (Sunday) in two shifts have been issued. Candidates may download duplicate Admission Certificate by clicking here.
Written Examination shall be conducted at five centres over Northern Region as per details given below:-
(1) Delhi (candidates of Alwar shall appear at venues of Delhi)
(2) Dehradun (Candidates of Almora, Haldwani and Srinagar (UK) shall appear at venues of Dehradun)
(3) Jaipur (Candidates of Ajmer, Kota and Udiapur shall appear at venues of Jaipur)
(4) Jodhpur
(5) Sriganganagar (Candidates of Bikaner shall appear at venues of Sriganganagar)
In case you are not able to get information of admission certificate on the website and qualified in PET/PST, you should immediately contact /approachStaff Selection Commission (Northern Region) alongwith result of PET/PST before 31-05-2011.
Candidates who qualified in PET/PST of ITBP and Assam Riffles and also applied for Recruitment of Constables (GD) in CISF, BSF, CRPF and SSB Exam 2011 should check up the status of their candidature and download admission certificate. In case your roll number ofRecruitment of Constables (GD) in CISF, BSF, CRPF and SSB Exam 2011 is not available, you should immediately contact /approach Staff Selection Commission (Northern Region) alongwith result of PET/PST before 31-05-2011.
The result of PET/PST of candidates of Northern Region for Recruitment of Constables (GD) in CISF, BSF, CRPF and SSB Exam 2011has also been uploaded. You may see your result of PET/PST by clicking here.
Monday, May 23, 2011
Admission Card For Sub-Inspector Police Comb. Comp. Exam-2010 www.rpsc.gov.in Answer Key Of Hindi Gk Online
Admission Card For Sub-Inspector Police Comb. Comp. Exam-2010
Plz wait my friends answer key update subjects Today ..... so Enjoy
RPSC Conducted SI exam on Dated 25th, May, "2011"...........
Here I mention Link For Answer Key Of GK and Hindi..........
GK
GK-Answar-Key.pdf
Hindi
Hindi-Answer-Key.pdf
RPSC RAS Exam Schedule 2010 | RPSC RAT Examination Schedule 2010 | Rajasthan Public Service Commission RAS/RAT Exam Schedule 2010 | www.rpsc.gov.in
Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) Conducting The RAS/RTS-Exam 2010 on 29-09-2010.
www.job2fresher.com
* Selection Procedure : There will a be written Competitive Exam (Preliminary) and Mains Examination.
Rajasthan Public Service Commission, Ajmer SYLLABI OF THE PAPER/SUBJECTS PRESCRIBED FOR THE MAIN EXAMINATION COMPULSORY PAPERS/SUBJECTS
PAPER-I. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND GENERAL SCIENCE
1. Current Affairs – Current events of State, National and International importance, International agencies, their activities, Economic and Political aspects in India and organisations and institutions working in these fields. Games and sports at State, National and International Levels.way2freshers.com
2. General Science – Questions on General Science will cover general appreciation and understanding of Science including matters of everyday observations and experience as may be expected of and enlightened person though he may not have made any special study of science. Question to test the candidate’s acquaintance with matters such as Electronics, Tele-communication. Satellies and the like should also be included.
3. Geography and Natural resources -
(a) Broad physical features o the world, important places, rivese, mountains, continents, oceans.
(b) Natural resources of India, Mines and minerals, Forests, land and water, Wild life and conservation, ecology of India
(c) Physiography, Climate, Vegetation and soil regions, Broad Physical divisions of India, human resources, problems of population, unemployment, poverty, drought famines and desertification in India.
(d)Energy problems and conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.way2freshers.com
4. Agriculture and Economic Development of India – Food and Commercial crops, agriculture base industries, Major irrigation and rivers valley projects, Growth and location of industries. Industrial raw materials, Mineral based Industries, Small Scale & Cottage Industries, Export items, various economic plans, programmes and institutions for development. Cooperative movement, small enterprises and financial institutions.
5. History and Culture – Main currents in World History, Art and Culture, Landmarks in the political and cultural history of India, Major monuments, and Literary works. Renaissance, struggle ofr freedom & national integration.
PAPER II. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OF RAJASTHAN, RAJASTHANI SOCIETY, ART & CULTURE
1. Geography and Natural Resources -
(a) Broad Physical Features : Topography, Climate, Vegetation and Soil Regions, Rivers, Mountains, Lakes, Natural divisions, Geographical regions.
(b) Natural Resources : Mines and Minerals, Forest, Land and Water, Wild life and Conservation, Environmental Ecology.
(c) Livestock and Fisheries, Breed, Population, Regional Distribution, Cattle Fairs.
(d)Human Resources, Population problem, Unemployment, Poverty, Drought and Famines.
(e) Energy Problems and Conventional and Non-conventional sources of energy.
2. Agriculture & Industry – Food and Commercial Crops, Agriculture based Industries. Major and Minor Irrigation & River ValleyProjects. Projects for the development of the desert and waste land, Indira Gandhi Canal Project. Growth and location of Industries, Industrial raw materials.Mineral Based Industries, Large, Small and Cottage Industries, Rajasthani Handicrafts.
3. Economic Development and Planning – Various Economic Plans. Programmes and Institutions for development, Co-operative movement, Small Enterprises and Financial Institutions, Various indicators of Economic development.
4. History, Polity, Art & Culture – History & Culture of Rajasthan with special reference to :
1. The mediaeval background.way2freshers.com
2. Socio-economic life and organizations.
3. Freedom Movement and Political awakening.
4. Political Integration.
5. Music, dance & theatre.way2freshers.com
6. Religious beliefs, cults, saints, poets and warrior saints ‘Lok Devta’, ‘Lok Deviyan’.
7. Handicrafts.
8. Fairs and Festivals, Customs, Dresses & Ornaments. With special reference to fold and tribal aspects thereof.
5. Literature – Rajasthani Language, Dialects and their regions, History of language and literature, famous writers, poets and their works with special reference to flok-lore.
Rajasthan Public Service Commission has had a glorious past of nearly 50 years. During 1923, the Lee Commission had recommended setting up of a Central Public Service Commission in India, but it did not give much thought to the need of establishing similar commissions in provinces. It was left largely to the discretion of provincial Governments to recruit and exercise control over their Services, as they thought proper.
At the time of formation of Rajasthan, the institution of Public Service Commission existed in only three of the twenty-two covenanting states viz. Jaipur, Jodhpur and Bikaner.
The successor administration after the merger of the princely states promulgated an ordinance on 16th August,1949 establishing the Rajasthan Public Service Commission Ajmer. It provided for the abolition of the PSCs or other institution performing duties in the nature of those of a PSC in the constituent states. The ordinance also provided inter-alia, for the composition of the Commission, the staff and the functions of the Commission.
Initially the composition of the Commission was one Chairman and 2 Members. Sir S.K.Ghosh (also the then Chief Justice of Rajasthan) was appointed Chairman.
 Apply Online Application | |
| Proposed Schedule for forthcoming examinations | Proposed Schedule for forthcoming Interviews |
Plz wait my friends answer key update subjects Today ..... so Enjoy
RPSC SI Answer Key GK Dated - 25/05/2011
Here I mention Link For Answer Key Of GK and Hindi..........
GK
GK-Answar-Key.pdf
Hindi
Hindi-Answer-Key.pdf
RPSC RAS Exam Schedule 2010 | RPSC RAT Examination Schedule 2010 | Rajasthan Public Service Commission RAS/RAT Exam Schedule 2010 | www.rpsc.gov.in
Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) Conducting The RAS/RTS-Exam 2010 on 29-09-2010.
www.job2fresher.com
* Selection Procedure : There will a be written Competitive Exam (Preliminary) and Mains Examination.
Rajasthan Public Service Commission, Ajmer SYLLABI OF THE PAPER/SUBJECTS PRESCRIBED FOR THE MAIN EXAMINATION COMPULSORY PAPERS/SUBJECTS
PAPER-I. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND GENERAL SCIENCE
1. Current Affairs – Current events of State, National and International importance, International agencies, their activities, Economic and Political aspects in India and organisations and institutions working in these fields. Games and sports at State, National and International Levels.way2freshers.com
2. General Science – Questions on General Science will cover general appreciation and understanding of Science including matters of everyday observations and experience as may be expected of and enlightened person though he may not have made any special study of science. Question to test the candidate’s acquaintance with matters such as Electronics, Tele-communication. Satellies and the like should also be included.
3. Geography and Natural resources -
(a) Broad physical features o the world, important places, rivese, mountains, continents, oceans.
(b) Natural resources of India, Mines and minerals, Forests, land and water, Wild life and conservation, ecology of India
(c) Physiography, Climate, Vegetation and soil regions, Broad Physical divisions of India, human resources, problems of population, unemployment, poverty, drought famines and desertification in India.
(d)Energy problems and conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.way2freshers.com
4. Agriculture and Economic Development of India – Food and Commercial crops, agriculture base industries, Major irrigation and rivers valley projects, Growth and location of industries. Industrial raw materials, Mineral based Industries, Small Scale & Cottage Industries, Export items, various economic plans, programmes and institutions for development. Cooperative movement, small enterprises and financial institutions.
5. History and Culture – Main currents in World History, Art and Culture, Landmarks in the political and cultural history of India, Major monuments, and Literary works. Renaissance, struggle ofr freedom & national integration.
PAPER II. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OF RAJASTHAN, RAJASTHANI SOCIETY, ART & CULTURE
1. Geography and Natural Resources -
(a) Broad Physical Features : Topography, Climate, Vegetation and Soil Regions, Rivers, Mountains, Lakes, Natural divisions, Geographical regions.
(b) Natural Resources : Mines and Minerals, Forest, Land and Water, Wild life and Conservation, Environmental Ecology.
(c) Livestock and Fisheries, Breed, Population, Regional Distribution, Cattle Fairs.
(d)Human Resources, Population problem, Unemployment, Poverty, Drought and Famines.
(e) Energy Problems and Conventional and Non-conventional sources of energy.
2. Agriculture & Industry – Food and Commercial Crops, Agriculture based Industries. Major and Minor Irrigation & River ValleyProjects. Projects for the development of the desert and waste land, Indira Gandhi Canal Project. Growth and location of Industries, Industrial raw materials.Mineral Based Industries, Large, Small and Cottage Industries, Rajasthani Handicrafts.
3. Economic Development and Planning – Various Economic Plans. Programmes and Institutions for development, Co-operative movement, Small Enterprises and Financial Institutions, Various indicators of Economic development.
4. History, Polity, Art & Culture – History & Culture of Rajasthan with special reference to :
1. The mediaeval background.way2freshers.com
2. Socio-economic life and organizations.
3. Freedom Movement and Political awakening.
4. Political Integration.
5. Music, dance & theatre.way2freshers.com
6. Religious beliefs, cults, saints, poets and warrior saints ‘Lok Devta’, ‘Lok Deviyan’.
7. Handicrafts.
8. Fairs and Festivals, Customs, Dresses & Ornaments. With special reference to fold and tribal aspects thereof.
5. Literature – Rajasthani Language, Dialects and their regions, History of language and literature, famous writers, poets and their works with special reference to flok-lore.
Monday, May 9, 2011
GPAT 2011 Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test 2011 Answer Key Answer Sheet Solutions
All Entrance Exam Paper: GPAT 2011 Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test 2011 Answer Key Answer Sheet Solutions GPAT-2011 Answer Key-GPAT 2011 Solutions-GPAT -2011 cut off GPAT Answer Key 2011 download gpat answer key 2011 GPAT 2011 Answer Key GPAT 2011 Answers.
The GPAT-2011 question paper will consist of one hundred fifty (150 Nos.) multiple choice objective questions only. Candidates have to mark the correct choice by darkening the appropriate bubble against each question on an Optical Response Sheet (ORS). Each right answer will carry one mark while for each wrong answer 1/3 (one third) marks will be deducted.
Each question will have four choices for the answer. Out of these, only one choice is correct. Each choice contains a single, stand-alone statement / phrase / data / structure.
The type of questions asked in this examination would be to evaluate a candidate’s aptitude and subject knowledge of Pharmacy field which may involve basic principles, facts, formulae/laws, understanding of the fundamental ideas, and application or drawing observations of the fundamentals of pharmacy discipline. Some examples of the multiple choice objective questions are given below:
| Q.1 | At physiological pH the following compound would be MOSTLY in the: | |
 | ||
| (A) cationic form | (B) unionized form | |
| (C) zwitterionic form | (D) anionic form | |
| Q.2 | The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa, can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that crosses the blood-brain barrier by: | |
| (A) increasing penetration of levodopa through BBB by complexation with it | ||
| (B) decreasing peripheral metabolism of levodopa | ||
| (C) decreasing metabolism of levodopa in the CNS | ||
| (D) decreasing clearance of levodopa from the CNS | ||
| Q.3 | Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by | |
| (A) first order kinetics | (B) second order kinetics | |
| (C) zero order kinetics | (D) non-linear kinetics | |
| Q.4 | Tropane alkaloids are NOT present in | |
| (A) Datura stramonium | (B) Erythroxylum coca | |
| (C) Duboisia myoporoides | (D) Lobelia inflata | |
| Q.5 | In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions the ability of the following leaving groups:(P) Fluoride (Q) Iodide (R) Chloride (S) Bromide follows the order: | |
| (A) P > Q > R > S | (B) R > S > Q > P | |
| (C) Q > S > R > P | (D) P > R > S > Q | |
| Q.6 | In sequence rules, the priority of the following atoms attached to chiral carbon is to be decided for designating its absolute configuration: (P) Oxygen (Q) Carbon (R) Nitrogen (S) Hydrogen Priority of the atoms is to be decided on the basis of their: | |
| (A) electronegativity | (B) atomic mass | |
| (C) atomic number | (D) atomic size | |
| Q.7 | In the four major constituents of vitamin B complex, thiamine, riboflavin, pyridoxal and cynocobalamine: (p) riboflavin contains ribose sugar (q) thiamine contains pyridine ring (r) pyridoxal contains pyrimidine ring (s) cynacobalamine contains porphyrin ring The given statement is correct: | |
| (A) r is true, s is false, p is true, q is false (B) r is true, s is true, p is true, q is true (C) r is false, s is true, p is false, q is false (D) r is true, s is false, p is false, q is true | ||
| Q.8 | Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion: For a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the average velocity is one half of the maximum velocity. Reason: The velocity for a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe varies linearly in the radial direction. | |
| (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a] (C) Both [a] and [r] are false (D) [a] is true but [r] is false | ||
Sunday, April 24, 2011
www.kiitee.ac.in KIITEE 2011 ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION EXAM HELD ON 24 APR 2011
 |  |
KIITEE - 2011 (International Applicants)
KIITEE - 2011 entrance was conducted on 24-4-2011 and it is expected that like last year its answer key and solution would be uploaded at http://www.kiitee.ac.in/. Hopefully, answer sheet for April 2011 KIITEE would be published within a .
Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST) Answer Key and Solutions 2011 will be available shortly. ISAT 2011 has been conducted on 16th April, 2011 at 9:30 am to 12:30 pm. ISAT 2011 Solutions and ISAT 2011 Answer Key .
Saturday, April 23, 2011
VERSION - A PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1 SRMEEE 2011 Answer Key and Solutions
SRMEEE 2011 Solutions, SRMEEE 2011 Solved Paper, SRMEEE 2011 Answers, SRMEEE 2011 Question Paper Key, SRMEEE Answeer Key 2011, SRMEEE 2011 Exam Answer Key.
SRMEEE Answer Key and Solutions We will soon release the answer key for SRMEE 2011 SRMEEE 2010 Answer Key VERSION - A PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1.
SRMEEE Answer Key and Solutions We will soon release the answer key for SRMEE 2011 SRMEEE 2010 Answer Key VERSION - A PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1.
We will soon release the answer key for SRMEE 2011
SRMEEE Answer Key and Solutions We will soon release the answer key for SRMEE 2011 SRMEEE 2010 Answer Key VERSION - A PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1.
SRMEEE Answer Key and Solutions We will soon release the answer key for SRMEE 2011 SRMEEE 2010 Answer Key VERSION - A PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1.
We will soon release the answer key for SRMEE 2011
SRMEEE 2010 Answer Key
VERSION – A
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1 – Physics
1. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform
acceleration of 6 ms-2……
Ans : 21 m
Dimensions are not same for the pair Ans : Power and strain
If L, C, R denote the inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively, …
Ans : M°L°T3I°
Pick out the stranger in the group Ans : Magnetic moment
A scooter is going round a circular road of radius 200 m at a speed of 20 ms-1 ….
Ans : 0.1 rad s-1
In some region, the gravitational field is zero… Ans : Must be constant
Two spheres of mass m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them .
Ans : f
8. The ratio of the lengths of two wires a and b of
same material is 1 : 3 ..
Ans : 1:27
9. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the principle of
conservation of
Ans : Energy
10. The ring of radius 1 m and mass 15 kg is rotating
about its diameter ..
Ans : 2343.7 J rHEMATICS & BIOLOGY]
11. The total energy of a body executing simple
harmonic motion is E..
Ans : 8E 9
12. Pick out the stranger
Ans : newton-meter
Note : If considered as troque, will be a vector
13. A tunnel has been dug through the centre of the
earth and a ball is ….
Ans : 42 minute
14. Entropy of the universe tends to be
Ans : Maximum
15. Heating of water at atmospheric pressure is
considered under the .
Ans : Isobaric
16. A Carnot engine working between 200 K and
500 K has a work output of 900 J…
Ans : 1500 J
17. A heavenly body is receding from Earth such that
the fractional change in .
Ans : 2c
Note : No matter can move even at a speed of
light
18. The penetration of light into the region of
geometrical shadow is called
Ans : Diffraction
19. A man is 160 cm tall and his eyes are 15 cm
below the top of his head….
Ans : 80 cm
o
20. Light of wavelength 5000 A in air has
wavelength in glass …
Ans:3333 A
21. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line
joining two equal charges q…..
Ans : ^ 4
22. A capacitor is kept connected to a battery and a
dielectric slab is inserted between ..
Ans : Work is done at the cost of the battery
23. When two identical capacitors are in series, they
have 4 |mF capacitance …
30. When cathode rays enter into a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to the direction of…..
Ans : Circular
31. The pulleys and strings shown in figure are
smooth and of negligible mass….
Ans : 45°
32. In the Boolean expression, which gate be
expressed as Y = A • B ?
Ans : NAND gate
33. The current gain of the transistor in the common
base mode is 0.9….
Ans : 9
Ans : 8 |mF 34. If the base and the collector of a transistor are in
forward bias, then ..
24. A cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 0.2 W is
connected with the resistance of …. Ans : All of these
Ans : 3.6 V
1
25. At certain place, horizontal component is -=
V3
times the vertical component ..
Ans : 60°
26. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 0.2 A
produces a deflection of 30°.
Ans : 0.6 A
27. If we consider electrons and protons of the same
wavelength, they will have the same .
Ans : Momentum
28. The momentum of a proton is
2.5 x 10-29 kg ms-1.
Ans : 1.14 x 1013 Hz
Note : Must be photons and not protons
29. On the bombardment of neutron with boron, an a particle is emitted..
Ans : 3Li7
35. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
2. What is the maximum possible .
Ans : 60°
Part 2 – Chemistry
36. Which one is diamagnetic molecule / ion ?
Ans : o2-
37. Which of the following is called a polyamide ?
Ans : nylon
38. How many moles of magnesium phosphate
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of…..
Ans : 3.125 x 10-2
39. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food
because .
Ans : boiling point of water involved in cooking in increased
40. Consider the reaction CaCO3(g) CaO(s) +
CO2(g) in closed container at ….
Ans : remains unaffected
41. 25 ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on
titration with a 0.1 molar solution ..
Ans : 0.07
42. Which of the following is not a homogeneous
mixture ?
Ans : milk
43. An ionic compound has a unit cell constituting A
ions at the corners of a cube…..
Ans : AB3
44. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions.
At 20°C, the vapour pressure .
Ans : 50
45. The number of moles of ions given on complete
ionization of 1 mole ….
Ans : 4
46. During the extraction of copper, the impurity
(FeS) is removed as slag ….
Ans : FeSiO3
47. All monosaccharides _______________ Tollens’
reagent.
Ans : reduce
48. Calculate AH (in joules) for C(graphite) ® C(diamond)
from the following data:
Ans : 1900
49. In the following reaction ; A and B respectively
are
Ans : C2H4,alc.KOH/A
What is X in the following nuclear reaction ? Ans : g ray (gamma ray)
The number of chiral centers in (±) glucose is Ans : 4
Action of NaNO2 with dilute HCl on ArNH yields Ans : cyclohexanol
What are the units of equivalent conductivity of a solution ?
Ans : mho.cm2.equiv-1
54. The Incorrect statement among the following is
Ans : The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of
Na.
55. When a quantity of electricity is passed through
CuSO4 solution, 0.16 g of copper gets ….
Ans : 56 cm3
56. A distinctive and characteristic functional group
of fats is .
Ans : an ester group
57. The highest magnetic moment is shown by the
transition metal .
Ans : 3d5
58. Assertion A : Sb2S3 is not soluble in yellow
ammonium sulphide
Reason R : The common ion effect due to S2-ions reduces the stability of Sb2S3
Ans : both A and R are false statements
Potassium soaps are Ans : soft soaps
The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – COO – COCH3 is
Ans : ethanoic propanoic anhydride
C6H6 + CCl4 A°3 > X H2° > Z Ans : C6H5 – CO-C6H5
Decrease in ionic size in a period is observed in Ans : Both (a) and (b)
63. Which of the following is not a chromophore ? 74. If the mean of a set of observations xi, X2, …
Ans : -NH2
Which is used as food preservative ? Ans : Sodium benzoate
Which one of the following is an analgesic ? Ans : Aspirin
AS° will be highest for
Ans : CaCO3(s) ® CaO(s) + CO2(g)
67. Philosopher’s wool when heated with BaO at
1100°C gives a compound.
Ans : BaZnO2
68. Match the lists I and II and pick the correct
matching from the codes given below :
Ans : A-2, B-5, C-1, D-4, E-3
Which statement about enzymes is not correct Ans : enzymes can catalyse any reaction
The molecular formula of dithionic acid is
Ans : H2S2O6
Part 3 - Maths
Ans : 42
75. If ex = y + ^1 + y2 then the value of y is
Ans : None of these
9
76. If the curves y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 cut each
other at right angles …
Ans :
■ ex (1 + sinx)
2
77. r o v . ~.. .-v dx is equal to •> 1 + cos x
Ans : ex tan — + C 2
/ 2
(2 + cosx )2
1
2
78. The value of j” 1 + 2cosx2 dx is
Ans :
79. The solution of the differential equation d2x
+ x = 0 ; x(0) = 1, x1(0) = 0
dt2
Ans : is a periodic function
80. If |a| = 2, |b| = 3, |c| = 4 and a + b + c = 0 then the value of b.c + c.a +a.b is equal to
71. The number of solutions of V4 – x +V x + 9 = 5
Ans : 2
Ans :
-29
2
72. The sum to n terms of the series ….
81. The lines
1
1
x – 2 y – 3 z – 4
- k
Ans :
2n
(n +1)
Ans : k = 0
1
Note : If the first term is read as then, the
13
2n
answer is -,———— r. Otherwise there is no correct
(n +1)
option.
73. Let f(x) = x2 and g(x) = 2x then the solution Ans : {0, 2}
82. The relation R : A ® B, where A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
and B = {u, v, x, y, z} …
Ans : {(1, u), (2, v), (3, x), (4, z), (5, y)}
2z +1
83. If the imaginary part of ———– is -4, then the
iz +1
locus of the point representing z in the…..
Ans : a circle
84. If A, B, C are the angles of a triangle, then Ans : 0
85. If sine, cose, tane are in G.P then cos9e + cos6e + 3 cos5e -1 is equal to
Ans : 0
93. If co is a complex cube root of unity, then the
1 co2 co
matrix A = co2 co 1 is a
co 1 co2
Ans : singular matrix
„ 1 1 1 1 1 p .,
86. If 1 — +——— +——— +… =— , then ….
3 5 7 9 11 4
Ans : *
8
87. In a group of 8 girls, two girls are sisters. The
number of ways in which the girls can sit so …
Ans : None of these
88. The number of ways of dividing 15 men and 15
women into 15 couples, ..
Ans : 1240
94. If lim————- = -1, then the value of a is
x®a xx -aa
Ans : 1
95. The slopes of the normals to the parabola
y2 = 4ax intersecting at a point on the ..
Ans : A.P
96. The area of the figure bounded by y2 = 9x
Ans :
89. The equation A =
satisfied when .
x – a x – b x – c x – b x – c x – a x-c x-a x-b
= 0 is
19
3
97. The area of the plane figure bounded by lines y = Vx , x e [0, 1], y = x2 , x e [1, 2] …
Ans :
Ans : No correct option
3
Note : None of the printed options satisfy the given relation. The answer should be (a + b + c)
x=
90. An equation of a straight line passing through the
intersection of the straight lines…..
Ans : 23x + 23y = 11
91. The number of values of c such that the straight
line y = 4x + c touches the ….
Ans : 2
1
V2
92. An ellipse has OB as a semi-minor axis. F, F1
are its foci, and the angle FBF1 is a ..
Ans :
98. A solution of y = 2x f-^O + x2!^! is
Ans : y = 2-v/cx + c2
99. If the vectors AB = – 3i + 4k and
AC = 5i -2j + 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC.
Ans : VT8
100.An equation of the line passing through 3i -5j + 7k and perpendicular to the plane …
3
x – 3 y + 5 z – 7
Ans : ——- =——– = -
45
Note : “passing through 3i-5j + 7k” should be read as “passing through the point whose position vector is 3ji -5jj +7kj ”
101.If from each of the three boxes containing 3 white
and 1 black , 2 white and 2 black,…..
Ans : 13 32
If x and y are two sets, then x n (y u x)c equals Ans : f
If Z = , then Z14 equals
3 – 4i
Ans : -27i
104.Equation of the directrix of the parabola whose focus is (0, 0) …
Ans : x – y + 2 = 0
105. If a is real and the 4th term in the expansion of | ax +—1 is5 , then values of a and n are ..
Ans : 6, -
2
Note : Question should be corrected as “the values of n and a” are
Part 4 – Biology
71. With reference to the skeletal muscle
myofilaments
Ans : troponin is a constituent of thin filaments
72. The pituitary gland is
Ans : the anterior lobe receives efferent fibres form the supra-opticohypophyseal tract
73. Urine volume is increased with
Ans : the damage to the posterior pituitary
74. The hypothalamus
Ans : is responsible for temperature regulation
75. Human immunodeficiency virus – 1 (HIV -1)
Ans : contains env gene which encodes the core nucleocapsid polypeptides
76. Staphylococcus aureus :
Ans : phage type I and II are the commonest cause of boils
77. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria occurs by … Ans : phagocytosis
78. Following informations are true about ….
Ans : On global basis, it attracted many people as valuable food substance
79. IFN-g is secreted by Ans : Th 1 cells
80. For antigen presentation to CD4 + T lymphocytes:
Ans : specialized antigen presenting cells are required for the induction of the T cell immune response.
81. Hyperacute rejection is developed Ans : Pre induction of Anti-HLA antibodies
82. The following are true about mitochondrial DNA
Ans : the sperm does not contain mitochondrial DNA
83. The following informations are true about .
Ans : 5% of the genome has been conserved by evolution around 200 million years ago
84. The following are the examples of Recombinant
DNA product except
Ans : Hemocidin
85. The cell aggregation before it attaches the
surface can be reduced .
Ans : All the above
86. Biological database
Ans : explains the structure of biomolecules and their interactions
87. Which of the following information are true
except?
Ans : Longevity is much lesser than 40 years in under developed countries
88. Major Green house gases include the following
Ans : Water vapor, Carbon di oxide, Methan, Ozone
89. The following informations are true about the
environmental impact on poverty
Ans : All the above
90. The following informations are true about water
stress except
Ans : Canada and Brazil are facing high water stress
91. The cattle breed which yields around 5000 -
8000 litres of milk
Ans : Jersey
92. Stethoscope was invented by Ans : Rene Theophile
93. Area of the at most least square of the central square .
Ans : 0.0025 sqmm
94. The pacemaker used during open heart surgery
is
Ans : Transcutaneous pacing
95. According to the Lamarck theory of evolution,
Ans : Individuals inheriting the traits of their ancestors
96. Allopatric speciation is one in which
Ans : Geographically isolated sub-populations diverge
97. Name the Father of Taxonomy Ans : Carolus Linnaeus
98. The basic unit of classification is Ans : Species
99. Malvacea flower has________ sepals
Ans : 5
100.Which following plant is involved in starch preparation ?
Ans : Cassava 101.Xylem conducts
Ans : Water 102.Palisade parenchyma cells are present in
Ans : Leaf 103.Plant age is identified by
Ans : Annual rings 104.Apical meristem is found usually in
Ans : Shoot tips and root tips 105.The Father of Genetics is
Ans : Mendel 106.Chiasma formation takes place in
Ans : Pachytene
107.Which one of the following cannot cause mutation ?
Ans : Infrared ray 108.DNA is a double helical structure proposed by
Ans : Watson and Crick 109.The alternative name for genetic engineering is
Ans : r-DNA technology
110.The enzyme involved in RNA – directed DNA synthesis is
Ans : Reverse transcriptase
111 .Agrobacterium tumifaciens has the__ plasmid
Ans : Ti
112.Protoplasmic fusion is performed by
Ans : PEG 113.An example of C4 plant is
Ans : Sugarcane
114.The rate of growth of plants can be measured by a
Ans : Auxanometer 115.Which one of the following is Phytohormone ? Ans : Indole acetic acid
116.Hormone promoting maleness in flowering plants is
Ans : Gibberellin
117.Name the micro organisms involved in biofertilizer preparation.
Ans : Cyanobacteria 118.Absence of magnesium causes
Ans : Chlorosis 119.Name the committee approves GM crops
Ans : GEAC 120.Name the botanical name of Groundnut
Ans : Arachis hypogea
VERSION – A
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, M Part 1 – Physics
1. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform
acceleration of 6 ms-2……
Ans : 21 m
Dimensions are not same for the pair Ans : Power and strain
If L, C, R denote the inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively, …
Ans : M°L°T3I°
Pick out the stranger in the group Ans : Magnetic moment
A scooter is going round a circular road of radius 200 m at a speed of 20 ms-1 ….
Ans : 0.1 rad s-1
In some region, the gravitational field is zero… Ans : Must be constant
Two spheres of mass m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them .
Ans : f
8. The ratio of the lengths of two wires a and b of
same material is 1 : 3 ..
Ans : 1:27
9. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the principle of
conservation of
Ans : Energy
10. The ring of radius 1 m and mass 15 kg is rotating
about its diameter ..
Ans : 2343.7 J rHEMATICS & BIOLOGY]
11. The total energy of a body executing simple
harmonic motion is E..
Ans : 8E 9
12. Pick out the stranger
Ans : newton-meter
Note : If considered as troque, will be a vector
13. A tunnel has been dug through the centre of the
earth and a ball is ….
Ans : 42 minute
14. Entropy of the universe tends to be
Ans : Maximum
15. Heating of water at atmospheric pressure is
considered under the .
Ans : Isobaric
16. A Carnot engine working between 200 K and
500 K has a work output of 900 J…
Ans : 1500 J
17. A heavenly body is receding from Earth such that
the fractional change in .
Ans : 2c
Note : No matter can move even at a speed of
light
18. The penetration of light into the region of
geometrical shadow is called
Ans : Diffraction
19. A man is 160 cm tall and his eyes are 15 cm
below the top of his head….
Ans : 80 cm
o
20. Light of wavelength 5000 A in air has
wavelength in glass …
Ans:3333 A
21. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line
joining two equal charges q…..
Ans : ^ 4
22. A capacitor is kept connected to a battery and a
dielectric slab is inserted between ..
Ans : Work is done at the cost of the battery
23. When two identical capacitors are in series, they
have 4 |mF capacitance …
30. When cathode rays enter into a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to the direction of…..
Ans : Circular
31. The pulleys and strings shown in figure are
smooth and of negligible mass….
Ans : 45°
32. In the Boolean expression, which gate be
expressed as Y = A • B ?
Ans : NAND gate
33. The current gain of the transistor in the common
base mode is 0.9….
Ans : 9
Ans : 8 |mF 34. If the base and the collector of a transistor are in
forward bias, then ..
24. A cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 0.2 W is
connected with the resistance of …. Ans : All of these
Ans : 3.6 V
1
25. At certain place, horizontal component is -=
V3
times the vertical component ..
Ans : 60°
26. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 0.2 A
produces a deflection of 30°.
Ans : 0.6 A
27. If we consider electrons and protons of the same
wavelength, they will have the same .
Ans : Momentum
28. The momentum of a proton is
2.5 x 10-29 kg ms-1.
Ans : 1.14 x 1013 Hz
Note : Must be photons and not protons
29. On the bombardment of neutron with boron, an a particle is emitted..
Ans : 3Li7
35. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
2. What is the maximum possible .
Ans : 60°
Part 2 – Chemistry
36. Which one is diamagnetic molecule / ion ?
Ans : o2-
37. Which of the following is called a polyamide ?
Ans : nylon
38. How many moles of magnesium phosphate
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of…..
Ans : 3.125 x 10-2
39. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food
because .
Ans : boiling point of water involved in cooking in increased
40. Consider the reaction CaCO3(g) CaO(s) +
CO2(g) in closed container at ….
Ans : remains unaffected
41. 25 ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on
titration with a 0.1 molar solution ..
Ans : 0.07
42. Which of the following is not a homogeneous
mixture ?
Ans : milk
43. An ionic compound has a unit cell constituting A
ions at the corners of a cube…..
Ans : AB3
44. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions.
At 20°C, the vapour pressure .
Ans : 50
45. The number of moles of ions given on complete
ionization of 1 mole ….
Ans : 4
46. During the extraction of copper, the impurity
(FeS) is removed as slag ….
Ans : FeSiO3
47. All monosaccharides _______________ Tollens’
reagent.
Ans : reduce
48. Calculate AH (in joules) for C(graphite) ® C(diamond)
from the following data:
Ans : 1900
49. In the following reaction ; A and B respectively
are
Ans : C2H4,alc.KOH/A
What is X in the following nuclear reaction ? Ans : g ray (gamma ray)
The number of chiral centers in (±) glucose is Ans : 4
Action of NaNO2 with dilute HCl on ArNH yields Ans : cyclohexanol
What are the units of equivalent conductivity of a solution ?
Ans : mho.cm2.equiv-1
54. The Incorrect statement among the following is
Ans : The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of
Na.
55. When a quantity of electricity is passed through
CuSO4 solution, 0.16 g of copper gets ….
Ans : 56 cm3
56. A distinctive and characteristic functional group
of fats is .
Ans : an ester group
57. The highest magnetic moment is shown by the
transition metal .
Ans : 3d5
58. Assertion A : Sb2S3 is not soluble in yellow
ammonium sulphide
Reason R : The common ion effect due to S2-ions reduces the stability of Sb2S3
Ans : both A and R are false statements
Potassium soaps are Ans : soft soaps
The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – COO – COCH3 is
Ans : ethanoic propanoic anhydride
C6H6 + CCl4 A°3 > X H2° > Z Ans : C6H5 – CO-C6H5
Decrease in ionic size in a period is observed in Ans : Both (a) and (b)
63. Which of the following is not a chromophore ? 74. If the mean of a set of observations xi, X2, …
Ans : -NH2
Which is used as food preservative ? Ans : Sodium benzoate
Which one of the following is an analgesic ? Ans : Aspirin
AS° will be highest for
Ans : CaCO3(s) ® CaO(s) + CO2(g)
67. Philosopher’s wool when heated with BaO at
1100°C gives a compound.
Ans : BaZnO2
68. Match the lists I and II and pick the correct
matching from the codes given below :
Ans : A-2, B-5, C-1, D-4, E-3
Which statement about enzymes is not correct Ans : enzymes can catalyse any reaction
The molecular formula of dithionic acid is
Ans : H2S2O6
Part 3 - Maths
Ans : 42
75. If ex = y + ^1 + y2 then the value of y is
Ans : None of these
9
76. If the curves y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 cut each
other at right angles …
Ans :
■ ex (1 + sinx)
2
77. r o v . ~.. .-v dx is equal to •> 1 + cos x
Ans : ex tan — + C 2
/ 2
(2 + cosx )2
1
2
78. The value of j” 1 + 2cosx2 dx is
Ans :
79. The solution of the differential equation d2x
+ x = 0 ; x(0) = 1, x1(0) = 0
dt2
Ans : is a periodic function
80. If |a| = 2, |b| = 3, |c| = 4 and a + b + c = 0 then the value of b.c + c.a +a.b is equal to
71. The number of solutions of V4 – x +V x + 9 = 5
Ans : 2
Ans :
-29
2
72. The sum to n terms of the series ….
81. The lines
1
1
x – 2 y – 3 z – 4
- k
Ans :
2n
(n +1)
Ans : k = 0
1
Note : If the first term is read as then, the
13
2n
answer is -,———— r. Otherwise there is no correct
(n +1)
option.
73. Let f(x) = x2 and g(x) = 2x then the solution Ans : {0, 2}
82. The relation R : A ® B, where A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
and B = {u, v, x, y, z} …
Ans : {(1, u), (2, v), (3, x), (4, z), (5, y)}
2z +1
83. If the imaginary part of ———– is -4, then the
iz +1
locus of the point representing z in the…..
Ans : a circle
84. If A, B, C are the angles of a triangle, then Ans : 0
85. If sine, cose, tane are in G.P then cos9e + cos6e + 3 cos5e -1 is equal to
Ans : 0
93. If co is a complex cube root of unity, then the
1 co2 co
matrix A = co2 co 1 is a
co 1 co2
Ans : singular matrix
„ 1 1 1 1 1 p .,
86. If 1 — +——— +——— +… =— , then ….
3 5 7 9 11 4
Ans : *
8
87. In a group of 8 girls, two girls are sisters. The
number of ways in which the girls can sit so …
Ans : None of these
88. The number of ways of dividing 15 men and 15
women into 15 couples, ..
Ans : 1240
94. If lim————- = -1, then the value of a is
x®a xx -aa
Ans : 1
95. The slopes of the normals to the parabola
y2 = 4ax intersecting at a point on the ..
Ans : A.P
96. The area of the figure bounded by y2 = 9x
Ans :
89. The equation A =
satisfied when .
x – a x – b x – c x – b x – c x – a x-c x-a x-b
= 0 is
19
3
97. The area of the plane figure bounded by lines y = Vx , x e [0, 1], y = x2 , x e [1, 2] …
Ans :
Ans : No correct option
3
Note : None of the printed options satisfy the given relation. The answer should be (a + b + c)
x=
90. An equation of a straight line passing through the
intersection of the straight lines…..
Ans : 23x + 23y = 11
91. The number of values of c such that the straight
line y = 4x + c touches the ….
Ans : 2
1
V2
92. An ellipse has OB as a semi-minor axis. F, F1
are its foci, and the angle FBF1 is a ..
Ans :
98. A solution of y = 2x f-^O + x2!^! is
Ans : y = 2-v/cx + c2
99. If the vectors AB = – 3i + 4k and
AC = 5i -2j + 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC.
Ans : VT8
100.An equation of the line passing through 3i -5j + 7k and perpendicular to the plane …
3
x – 3 y + 5 z – 7
Ans : ——- =——– = -
45
Note : “passing through 3i-5j + 7k” should be read as “passing through the point whose position vector is 3ji -5jj +7kj ”
101.If from each of the three boxes containing 3 white
and 1 black , 2 white and 2 black,…..
Ans : 13 32
If x and y are two sets, then x n (y u x)c equals Ans : f
If Z = , then Z14 equals
3 – 4i
Ans : -27i
104.Equation of the directrix of the parabola whose focus is (0, 0) …
Ans : x – y + 2 = 0
105. If a is real and the 4th term in the expansion of | ax +—1 is5 , then values of a and n are ..
Ans : 6, -
2
Note : Question should be corrected as “the values of n and a” are
Part 4 – Biology
71. With reference to the skeletal muscle
myofilaments
Ans : troponin is a constituent of thin filaments
72. The pituitary gland is
Ans : the anterior lobe receives efferent fibres form the supra-opticohypophyseal tract
73. Urine volume is increased with
Ans : the damage to the posterior pituitary
74. The hypothalamus
Ans : is responsible for temperature regulation
75. Human immunodeficiency virus – 1 (HIV -1)
Ans : contains env gene which encodes the core nucleocapsid polypeptides
76. Staphylococcus aureus :
Ans : phage type I and II are the commonest cause of boils
77. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria occurs by … Ans : phagocytosis
78. Following informations are true about ….
Ans : On global basis, it attracted many people as valuable food substance
79. IFN-g is secreted by Ans : Th 1 cells
80. For antigen presentation to CD4 + T lymphocytes:
Ans : specialized antigen presenting cells are required for the induction of the T cell immune response.
81. Hyperacute rejection is developed Ans : Pre induction of Anti-HLA antibodies
82. The following are true about mitochondrial DNA
Ans : the sperm does not contain mitochondrial DNA
83. The following informations are true about .
Ans : 5% of the genome has been conserved by evolution around 200 million years ago
84. The following are the examples of Recombinant
DNA product except
Ans : Hemocidin
85. The cell aggregation before it attaches the
surface can be reduced .
Ans : All the above
86. Biological database
Ans : explains the structure of biomolecules and their interactions
87. Which of the following information are true
except?
Ans : Longevity is much lesser than 40 years in under developed countries
88. Major Green house gases include the following
Ans : Water vapor, Carbon di oxide, Methan, Ozone
89. The following informations are true about the
environmental impact on poverty
Ans : All the above
90. The following informations are true about water
stress except
Ans : Canada and Brazil are facing high water stress
91. The cattle breed which yields around 5000 -
8000 litres of milk
Ans : Jersey
92. Stethoscope was invented by Ans : Rene Theophile
93. Area of the at most least square of the central square .
Ans : 0.0025 sqmm
94. The pacemaker used during open heart surgery
is
Ans : Transcutaneous pacing
95. According to the Lamarck theory of evolution,
Ans : Individuals inheriting the traits of their ancestors
96. Allopatric speciation is one in which
Ans : Geographically isolated sub-populations diverge
97. Name the Father of Taxonomy Ans : Carolus Linnaeus
98. The basic unit of classification is Ans : Species
99. Malvacea flower has________ sepals
Ans : 5
100.Which following plant is involved in starch preparation ?
Ans : Cassava 101.Xylem conducts
Ans : Water 102.Palisade parenchyma cells are present in
Ans : Leaf 103.Plant age is identified by
Ans : Annual rings 104.Apical meristem is found usually in
Ans : Shoot tips and root tips 105.The Father of Genetics is
Ans : Mendel 106.Chiasma formation takes place in
Ans : Pachytene
107.Which one of the following cannot cause mutation ?
Ans : Infrared ray 108.DNA is a double helical structure proposed by
Ans : Watson and Crick 109.The alternative name for genetic engineering is
Ans : r-DNA technology
110.The enzyme involved in RNA – directed DNA synthesis is
Ans : Reverse transcriptase
111 .Agrobacterium tumifaciens has the__ plasmid
Ans : Ti
112.Protoplasmic fusion is performed by
Ans : PEG 113.An example of C4 plant is
Ans : Sugarcane
114.The rate of growth of plants can be measured by a
Ans : Auxanometer 115.Which one of the following is Phytohormone ? Ans : Indole acetic acid
116.Hormone promoting maleness in flowering plants is
Ans : Gibberellin
117.Name the micro organisms involved in biofertilizer preparation.
Ans : Cyanobacteria 118.Absence of magnesium causes
Ans : Chlorosis 119.Name the committee approves GM crops
Ans : GEAC 120.Name the botanical name of Groundnut
Ans : Arachis hypogea
Monday, October 11, 2010
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